What are the three types of salivary glands and where are they located in the mouth?
Parotid, sublingual, and submandibular glands located in the cheeks, tongue, and roof of the mouth, respectively.
Sublingual, submandibular, and buccal glands located in the tongue, cheeks, and lips, respectively.
Parotid, sublingual, and submandibular glands located in the roof of the mouth, cheeks, and under the jawbone, respectively.
Sublingual, parotid, and buccal glands located in the tongue, cheeks, and lips, respectively.
Correct Answer : C
The three major pairs of salivary glands are the parod glands, sublingual glands, and submandibular glands. The parotid glands are located just in front of your ears. The sublingual glands are below either side of your tongue, under the floor of your mouth. The submandibular glands are located below your jaw ¹.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Transcription is the process by which DNA is copied into RNA. During transcription, the DNA molecule unwinds and RNA polymerase reads the DNA sequence and synthesizes a complementary RNA molecule using the DNA as a template.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The mitral valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart and helps to regulate the flow of blood between these chambers. It consists of two leaflets or flaps that open and close in response to changes in pressure as the heart beats.
During diastole, when the heart is relaxed and filling with blood, the mitral valve opens to allow blood to flow from the left atrium into the left ventricle. During systole, when the heart contracts to pump blood out of the left ventricle and into the systemic circulation, the mitral valve closes to prevent backflow of blood into the left atrium.
The mitral valve is one of four valves in the heart that help to ensure the unidirectional flow of blood through the heart and the rest of the circulatory system. Problems with the mitral valve, such as mitral valve prolapse or mitral stenosis, can lead to a range of symptoms and complications, including shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, and heart failure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- The number of protons in an atom is equal to its atomic number.
- The periodic table shows that phosphorus (P) has an atomic number of 15.
- This means every phosphorus atom has 15 protons in its nucleus.
Analysis of Other Options:
- A. 30 → This is close to the atomic mass (30.97), but the atomic mass is not the same as the number of protons. ❌
- B. 16 → This is incorrect; sulfur (S) has an atomic number of 16, not phosphorus. ❌
- D. 31 → This is rounded from the atomic mass (30.97), but atomic mass ≠ number of protons. ❌
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Transfer RNA (tRNA) is responsible for carrying amino acids to ribosomes during protein synthesis. Each tRNA molecule has a specific ancodon that matches a codon on the messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule. The tRNA molecule binds to the mRNA codon and brings the corresponding amino acid to the ribosome, where it is added to the growing polypepde chain.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- The image shown is a highly detailed 3D surface view of a blood clot, which suggests that it was captured using a scanning electron microscope (SEM).
- SEM produces high-resolution, three-dimensional images by scanning a sample with a focused beam of electrons, making it ideal for studying surface structures like blood cells and clots.
Analysis of Other Options:
- A. Compound Light Microscope → Uses visible light to magnify samples but lacks the resolution and 3D detail seen in the image. ❌
- B. Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) → Produces 2D images of ultra-thin sections, not detailed 3D surface views. ❌
- D. Stereoscope → A low-magnification microscope used for viewing larger objects, not detailed cellular structures. ❌
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A double-blind study is a research design in which neither the participants nor the researchers know which group participants are assigned to. This is done to minimize bias and ensure that the results of the study are as objective as possible. In a double-blind study, the treatment and control groups are randomly assigned, and the participants and researchers are unaware of which group each participant is assigned to.
Option a) is an example of a randomized controlled trial, which is a common research design, but it is not necessarily double-blind.
Option b) is an example of an open-label study, in which both the participants and the researchers know which group each participant is assigned to.
Option c) is an example of a single-blind study, in which the participants do not know which group they are assigned to, but the researchers do.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Innate immunity and adaptive immunity are two arms of the immune system that work together to protect the body from pathogens. Innate immunity is the first line of defense and is present at birth. It includes physical and chemical barriers such as the skin, mucous membranes, and antimicrobial peptides, as well as cells such as macrophages and natural killer cells that can quickly recognize and atack pathogens. Innate immunity is nonspecific, meaning it responds to a wide variety of pathogens in a similar way.
Adaptive immunity, on the other hand, is acquired after exposure to pathogens. It involves the production of antibodies and activation of T cells, which are specific to particular pathogens. Adaptive immunity takes longer to develop than innate immunity, but it provides a more specific and targeted response to pathogens. Once the adaptive immune system has been activated against a particular pathogen, it can provide long-term protection against future infections with that pathogen.
Option b) is incorrect because innate immunity is nonspecific while adaptive immunity is specific. Option c) is incorrect because antibodies are a part of adaptive immunity while T cells can be a part of both innate and adaptive immunity. Option d) is incorrect because adaptive immunity can provide long-term protection, while innate immunity provides immediate but short-lived protection.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The vertebral column, also known as the spine or spinal column, is a series of bones called vertebrae that extend from the skull to the pelvis. It provides support for the body and protects the spinal cord. The five regions of the vertebral column, starting from the top and moving downwards, are:
- Cervical: This region is made up of seven vertebrae and is located in the neck. The first two cervical vertebrae, the atlas and the axis, are specialized to allow for head movement.
2. Thoracic: This region is made up of twelve vertebrae and is located in the upper and middle back. The thoracic vertebrae are larger than the cervical vertebrae and articulate with the ribs.
3. Lumbar: This region is made up of five vertebrae and is located in the lower back. The lumbar vertebrae are the largest and strongest of the vertebrae.
4. Sacral: This region is made up of five fused vertebrae and is located in the pelvis. The sacrum forms the posterior wall of the pelvis and articulates with the hip bones.
5. Coccygeal: This region is made up of four fused vertebrae and is located at the base of the vertebral column. The coccyx, or tailbone, provides atachment points for muscles and ligaments.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
- A. Nanolitres (nL) → Extremely small unit (1 nL = 0.000000001 L), used for microscopic measurements. ❌
- B. Microlitres (µL) → Also very small (1 µL = 0.000001 L), used in lab settings. ❌
- C. Litres (L) → Too large, as typical urine output per hour is much less than 1 L. ❌
- D. Millilitres (mL) → Suitable, since normal urine output per hour is about 30-80 mL. ✅
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