106 A client with a fracture of the right femur has had skeletal traction applied. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's nursing care plan?
Assess the pin sites for signs of infection.
Administer pain medication at designated intervals around the clock.
Assess the pulses proximal to the fracture site.
Remove traction every shift and provide skin care.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Assessing the pin sites for signs of infection is essential in clients with skeletal traction to detect any early signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, warmth, or purulent drainage. Prompt identification and management of pin site infections can prevent complications.
B. Administering pain medication at designated intervals around the clock helps to ensure adequate pain control and comfort for the client. However, this intervention alone does not specifically address the care needs related to skeletal traction.
C. Assessing the pulses proximal to the fracture site is important for monitoring circulation and detecting any signs of impaired perfusion. However, this assessment is not directly related to the care of skeletal traction itself.
D. Removing traction every shift is not indicated unless there is a specific reason to do so as ordered by the healthcare provider. Continuous traction is often necessary for proper alignment and stabilization of the fracture. Additionally, providing skin care is important to prevent skin breakdown around the traction device, but removing traction every shift is not part of routine care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Abdominal rigidity in a client with a bowel obstruction due to a volvulus indicates possible peritonitis, which is a medical emergency.
B. Paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds is concerning but not immediately life- threatening.
C. A nasogastric tube draining greenish fluid is expected in small bowel obstruction.
D. Abdominal distention in large intestine obstruction is concerning but less urgent than potential peritonitis.
Correct Answer is ["1.4"]
Explanation
To calculate the dosage of lorazepam for the client, first determine the total micrograms required by multiplying the client's weight in kilograms by the prescribed amount per kilogram. For a client weighing 65 kg prescribed 44 mcg/kg, the total dosage would be 65 kg x 44 mcg/kg, which equals 2860 mcg. Since the medication is available in a concentration of 2 mg/ml, convert the total dosage from micrograms to milligrams by dividing by 1000 (because there are 1000 micrograms in a milligram). This results in 2.86 mg. Finally, to find out how many milliliters to administer, divide the total milligrams needed by the concentration of the vial, which is 2 mg/ml. Therefore, 2.86 mg / 2 mg/ml equals 1.43 ml. When rounding to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 1.4 ml of lorazepam.
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