A 14-year-old client was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. The client is prescribed 10 units of regular insulin and 15 units of NPH insulin each morning. How should the nurse instruct this client to give themself the prescribed doses of insulin?

"First draw up the NPH insulin; then draw up the regular insulin in the same syringe."

"First draw up and administer the regular insulin, then draw up and administer the NPH insulin."

"First draw up and administer the NPH insulin. Wait at least 15 minutes; then draw up and administer the regular insulin."

"First draw up the regular insulin; then draw up the NPH insulin in the same syringe."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. "First draw up the NPH insulin; then draw up the regular insulin in the same syringe.": Drawing the cloudy NPH first then the clear regular risks contaminating the regular insulin vial with NPH; this order increases the chance of altering the short-acting vial.

B. "First draw up and administer the regular insulin, then draw up and administer the NPH insulin.": Giving two separate injections (regular first, then NPH) would avoid mixing errors, but it increases number of injections; when mixing in one syringe, the usual safe procedure is still to draw the clear (regular) before the cloudy (NPH).

C. "First draw up and administer the NPH insulin. Wait at least 15 minutes; then draw up and administer the regular insulin.": Separating administration with a wait is unnecessary and may delay glucose control; also drawing NPH first still risks contaminating the regular vial if mixing is later attempted.

D. "First draw up the regular insulin; then draw up the NPH insulin in the same syringe.": When mixing regular (clear) and NPH (cloudy) in one syringe the standard technique is clear before cloudy -draw the regular insulin first, then the NPH -to avoid contaminating the short-acting vial and ensure accurate dosing.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Blood pressure sitting 126/64; blood pressure standing 120/58: The systolic drop is 6 mm Hg and diastolic drop 6 mm Hg -these changes are small and do not meet orthostatic criteria.

B. Blood pressure sitting 140/60; blood pressure standing 138/58: The systolic drop is 2 mm Hg and diastolic drop 2 mm Hg -these minimal changes do not indicate orthostatic hypotension.

C. Blood pressure sitting 130/60; blood pressure standing 100/60: The systolic drop is 30 mm Hg (≥20 mm Hg), which meets the standard definition of orthostatic hypotension and supports that diagnosis.

D. Blood pressure sitting 120/64; blood pressure standing 120/64: No change in blood pressure readings is seen, which does not indicate orthostatic hypotension.

A. The client remains free of contractures. B. The client continues to have diarrhea. C. Renal calculi are present in the client's kidneys. D. Atelectasis is present on auscultation.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The client remains free of contractures: Maintaining joint range of motion with passive ROM and appropriate splinting prevents shortening of muscles and connective tissue, preserving functional positioning and preventing contractures.

B. The client continues to have diarrhea: Diarrhea is unrelated to passive ROM and splinting goals; its persistence would not indicate that mobility-preserving goals were met.

C. Renal calculi are present in the client's kidneys: Immobility increases the risk of calcium mobilization and stone formation, so presence of renal calculi indicates a complication rather than an achieved goal.

D. Atelectasis is present on auscultation: Atelectasis is a pulmonary complication associated with immobility and shallow breathing; its presence suggests a goal related to preventing respiratory complications was not achieved.

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A 14-year-old client was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. The client is prescribed 10 units of regular insulin and 15 units of NPH insulin each morning. How should the nurse instruct this client to give themself the prescribed doses of insulin?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a client for possible orthostatic hypotension. Which finding will help confirm orthostatic hypotension?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is performing passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting on an at-risk client. The nurse knows that goals have been met when which outcomes are achieved?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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