A 22-year-old female patient was diagnosed with major depressive disorder by her primary care provider, who referred her to the PMHNP for treatment and further evaluation. Which of the following tools helps gauge the intensity of depression in patients who have been diagnosed with a depressive syndrome?
Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9)
Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
Beck Hopelessness Scale
St. Louis University Mental Status Exam (SLUMS)
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: The PHQ-9 is useful for initial screening and monitoring of depressive symptoms but is not designed to provide a detailed assessment of depression severity once a diagnosis has been made.
Choice B reason: The BDI is a validated tool for measuring the intensity and severity of depressive symptoms in patients already diagnosed with depression, making it ideal for monitoring response to treatment.
Choice C reason: The Beck Hopelessness Scale measures hopelessness, which is a component of depression, but it does not assess overall depressive severity.
Choice D reason: SLUMS assesses cognitive functioning and is not a measure of depression severity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Schizoaffective disorder involves a combination of mood symptoms (mania or depression) and psychotic symptoms, such as hallucinations or delusions, which are not described in this patient.
Choice B reason: Bipolar II disorder is characterized by hypomanic episodes and major depressive episodes. This patient does not report full depressive episodes, so criteria for Bipolar II are not met.
Choice C reason: Bipolar I disorder requires at least one manic episode, which the patient has not experienced. Therefore, Bipolar I is not appropriate.
Choice D reason: Cyclothymic disorder is characterized by chronic fluctuating mood disturbances, including periods of hypomanic symptoms and depressive symptoms that do not meet full criteria for hypomania or major depression. This matches the patient’s description of mood swings and chronic "moody" behavior.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Factitious disorder involves intentionally producing or feigning symptoms to assume the sick role. This patient’s cognitive deficits are clearly related to trauma, not deliberate deception.
Choice B reason: Transient global amnesia is a brief, temporary episode of memory loss, often lasting hours, from which the patient recovers. This patient’s memory loss is permanent, ruling out this diagnosis.
Choice C reason: Major neurocognitive disorder due to traumatic brain injury involves significant cognitive decline after head trauma, including memory loss, impaired executive function, and the need to relearn daily living skills. This matches the patient’s presentation.
Choice D reason: Ataque de nervios is a culturally bound syndrome characterized by acute anxiety, emotional outbursts, and somatic symptoms, unrelated to trauma-induced cognitive deficits.
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