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A 23-year-old woman presents to the PMHNP with a chief complaint of "nervous tension." After a full evaluation and the administration of the Hamilton Anxiety Scale (HAM-A), the PMHNP diagnoses her with generalized anxiety disorder. He plans to use today's HAM-A score as a baseline and then readminister the scale at every follow-up appointment to monitor treatment. Her score today is 20. What does this score indicate?

A.

Mild anxiety

B.

Minimal anxiety

C.

Moderate anxiety

D.

Severe anxiety

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Mild anxiety is characterized by tension or nervousness that is noticeable but does not significantly impair daily functioning. A HAM-A score of 20 exceeds the typical cutoff for mild anxiety, suggesting more pronounced symptom severity.

Choice B reason: Minimal anxiety refers to very low levels of anxious symptoms, often with minimal physiological or cognitive impact. A score of 20 indicates a higher level of distress than would be considered minimal.

Choice C reason: Moderate anxiety includes more obvious psychological and physical symptoms that interfere somewhat with daily life. A HAM-A score of 20 falls within this range, indicating the patient has significant but not severe anxiety.

Choice D reason: Severe anxiety involves intense distress and impairment in daily functioning. A HAM-A score of 20 is below the threshold for severe anxiety, which typically starts at higher scores.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Reduced need for sleep is a hallmark feature of hypomanic episodes in bipolar disorder and is not typical of ADHD.

Choice B reason: Symptoms that occur episodically rather than consistently over time suggest a mood disorder rather than a chronic condition like ADHD.

Choice C reason: Rapid speech can occur in both ADHD and hypomanic episodes, making it less specific.

Choice D reason: Racing thoughts are characteristic of hypomanic episodes in bipolar disorder, helping distinguish it from ADHD.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Beta-lactams, such as penicillin or ampicillin, are the first-line therapy for intrapartum prophylaxis against GBS, effectively preventing neonatal infection.

Choice B reason: Aminoglycosides are not first-line for GBS prophylaxis and are typically reserved for gram-negative infections.

Choice C reason: Sulfonamides are contraindicated in late pregnancy due to risk of neonatal kernicterus and are not effective for GBS prophylaxis.

Choice D reason: Fluoroquinolones are not recommended during pregnancy and are not used for GBS prevention.

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