A nurse practitioner is treating a 17-year-old boy who sustained an open tibial fracture in a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment choice for a grade 1 open fracture?
Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
High-dose penicillin
Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Aminoglycosides are primarily used for gram-negative infections and severe open fractures (grade II or III) but are not the first-line choice for a mild, grade 1 open fracture.
Choice B reason: Cephalosporins, particularly first-generation cephalosporins like cefazolin, are the standard prophylactic antibiotics for grade 1 open fractures. They cover common pathogens such as Staphylococcus aureus and reduce the risk of post-traumatic osteomyelitis.
Choice C reason: High-dose penicillin is reserved for fractures complicated by anaerobic infections (e.g., contaminated wounds with soil) and is not routinely indicated for simple grade 1 open fractures.
Choice D reason: Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim are not standard prophylaxis for open fractures and are not the first-line treatment due to insufficient coverage of typical pathogens encountered in acute open fractures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Aminoglycosides are primarily used for gram-negative infections and severe open fractures (grade II or III) but are not the first-line choice for a mild, grade 1 open fracture.
Choice B reason: Cephalosporins, particularly first-generation cephalosporins like cefazolin, are the standard prophylactic antibiotics for grade 1 open fractures. They cover common pathogens such as Staphylococcus aureus and reduce the risk of post-traumatic osteomyelitis.
Choice C reason: High-dose penicillin is reserved for fractures complicated by anaerobic infections (e.g., contaminated wounds with soil) and is not routinely indicated for simple grade 1 open fractures.
Choice D reason: Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim are not standard prophylaxis for open fractures and are not the first-line treatment due to insufficient coverage of typical pathogens encountered in acute open fractures.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Bradypnea and bradycardia are not characteristic of fat embolism; fat embolism typically produces compensatory tachycardia and tachypnea.
Choice B reason: Although confusion and shortness of breath can occur, bradycardia and bradypnea are inconsistent with fat embolism syndrome.
Choice C reason: Fat embolism syndrome often presents with tachypnea, tachycardia, restlessness, and a petechial rash, which reflect pulmonary, neurological, and dermatologic involvement, making this the classic presentation.
Choice D reason: Decreased temperature is not a hallmark sign of fat embolism; fever may actually occur in some cases, but tachypnea, tachycardia, restlessness, and petechial rash are the strongest indicators.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.