A 42-year-old woman recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis asks the nurse practitioner about disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). Which of the following statements about DMARDs is INCORRECT?
DMARDs target the underlying disease.
DMARDs limit joint damage and improve function.
DMARDs include different classes of medications and are available orally, via subcutaneous injection, or via IV infusion.
Patients can begin to experience symptom improvement 3 weeks after DMARD initiation.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: DMARDs act on the underlying inflammatory process in rheumatoid arthritis, modifying disease progression.
Choice B reason: DMARDs slow or prevent joint damage and improve long-term functional outcomes.
Choice C reason: DMARDs are a heterogeneous group, including traditional and biologic agents, administered orally, subcutaneously, or intravenously.
Choice D reason: Symptom improvement is typically delayed and may take 6–12 weeks or longer after starting DMARD therapy; expecting improvement in 3 weeks is inaccurate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Estrogen is not indicated because Klinefelter syndrome involves low testosterone; giving estrogen could worsen feminization and does not address the underlying hormone deficiency.
Choice B reason: Testosterone replacement therapy is the mainstay of treatment in Klinefelter syndrome to promote the development of secondary sexual characteristics, improve muscle mass and bone density, and support overall physical and psychological health.
Choice C reason: Doing nothing would allow the effects of testosterone deficiency to persist, including delayed puberty, reduced muscle mass, decreased bone density, and potential psychosocial difficulties.
Choice D reason: Progesterone is not used in Klinefelter syndrome; it does not address testosterone deficiency and has no role in managing the condition.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This choice is correct because a YMRS score of 20–29 indicates moderate mania, reflecting significant mood elevation, increased activity, and behavioral disturbances that require monitoring and possibly treatment adjustment.
Choice B reason: Mild mania corresponds to YMRS scores of 12–19, indicating less pronounced symptoms than observed in this patient.
Choice C reason: Severe mania corresponds to YMRS scores of 30 or higher, which would reflect extreme agitation, psychosis, or risk to self/others.
Choice D reason: Minimal mania corresponds to YMRS scores below 12, which does not match the patient’s clinical presentation or score of 25.
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