A 27-year-old woman is admitted to a psychiatric unit for treatment-resistant depression. While there, she has a behavioral incident that prompts the staff to sedate her. After she awakens, she is told she received an electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment. Which of her rights was violated?
Property rights
Informed consent
Freedom of opinion
Life and liberty
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Property rights pertain to ownership and control over personal belongings or assets. This scenario does not involve any violation of the patient’s property or possessions, making this choice irrelevant.
Choice B reason: Informed consent is a fundamental ethical and legal requirement in healthcare, especially for procedures like ECT. It involves explaining the nature, risks, benefits, and alternatives of a treatment and obtaining voluntary agreement from the patient. Administering ECT without prior consent violates this right and undermines patient autonomy and trust.
Choice C reason: Freedom of opinion refers to the right to hold and express personal beliefs. While important, this right is not directly related to the administration of medical procedures without consent.
Choice D reason: Life and liberty rights are broader constitutional protections. Although involuntary treatment can raise liberty concerns, the specific violation here is the lack of informed consent, which is more precise and directly applicable.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Original Medicare includes Part A (hospital insurance) and Part B (medical insurance), but it does not cover outpatient prescription drugs.
Choice B reason: Medicare Advantage (Part C) may include drug coverage, but it varies by plan. It is not the designated part of Medicare for prescription drug coverage.
Choice C reason: Medigap is supplemental insurance that helps cover out-of-pocket costs not paid by Original Medicare. It does not include prescription drug coverage.
Choice D reason: Medicare Part D is specifically designed to cover outpatient prescription drugs. It is the correct answer for identifying the part of Medicare that pays for medications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It is not used as a standalone maintenance treatment for opioid use disorder and has no role in long-term MAT. It is short-acting and not suitable for daily use.
Choice B reason: Naltrexone is a long-acting opioid antagonist that blocks the effects of opioids without producing euphoria or physical dependence. It is non-addictive and does not cause withdrawal symptoms when discontinued. It is ideal for individuals who want a non-addictive MAT option and are fully detoxified from opioids.
Choice C reason: Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist that reduces cravings and withdrawal symptoms. While it has a lower risk of addiction than full agonists, it can still cause physical dependence and withdrawal upon discontinuation.
Choice D reason: Buprenorphine/Naloxone is a combination used to reduce misuse potential. However, it still contains buprenorphine, which can lead to physical dependence. It is not the best choice for someone explicitly seeking a non-addictive option.
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