A 29-year-old woman presents to the nurse practitioner with a history of chronic migraine, including more than 15 headache days each month. Of the following, which is NOT considered first-line migraine prophylaxis treatment?
Divalproex (Depakote)
Topiramate (Topamax)
Metoprolol (Toprol XL)
Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Divalproex is an anticonvulsant approved for migraine prophylaxis. It modulates neurotransmitter activity and reduces neuronal excitability, making it effective for chronic migraine prevention.
Choice B reason: Topiramate is another anticonvulsant with proven efficacy in migraine prophylaxis. It reduces frequency and severity by stabilizing neuronal firing and inhibiting cortical spreading depression.
Choice C reason: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker commonly used for migraine prevention. It reduces sympathetic nervous system activity and stabilizes vascular tone, helping to prevent migraine attacks.
Choice D reason: Sumatriptan is a triptan used for acute migraine treatment, not prophylaxis. It acts as a serotonin receptor agonist to abort migraine episodes but does not prevent their occurrence. Therefore, it is not considered first-line for prophylaxis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Von Willebrand disease is indeed a hereditary bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), which plays a crucial role in platelet adhesion and stabilization of factor VIII. This statement is accurate.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect. Von Willebrand factor does not function independently of factor VIII. In fact, vWF serves as a carrier protein for factor VIII, protecting it from degradation in circulation. A deficiency in vWF can lead to secondary reductions in factor VIII levels, contributing to bleeding symptoms.
Choice C reason: vWF mediates platelet adhesion to the subendothelial matrix by binding to glycoprotein Ib-IX on the platelet surface. This interaction is essential for the initial steps of hemostasis. The statement is correct.
Choice D reason: VWD typically causes mild to moderate bleeding symptoms, such as easy bruising, nosebleeds, and prolonged bleeding after minor injuries. Severe bleeding is less common, especially in type 1 VWD. This statement is accurate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This description applies to osteoarthritis, not osteoporosis. Osteoarthritis involves degeneration of joint cartilage and synovial structures, whereas osteoporosis affects bone density and strength.
Choice B reason: While this statement touches on bone remodeling, it inaccurately suggests that compensatory osteoblastic activity leads to structurally inferior bone. In osteoporosis, the imbalance favors osteoclastic resorption over osteoblastic formation, resulting in net bone loss.
Choice C reason: This description is characteristic of autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis. Osteoporosis is not autoimmune in nature and does not involve synovial inflammation.
Choice D reason: Osteoporosis is defined by decreased bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration due to an imbalance between bone resorption and formation. Risk factors include smoking, low BMI, Asian ethnicity, and postmenopausal status, all of which apply to this patient. The disease increases fracture risk due to weakened bone structure.
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