A 61-year-old woman is diagnosed with osteoarthritis (OA) in her left wrist. Which of the following is first-line pharmacologic treatment for OA?
NSAIDs
Corticosteroids
Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Opioids
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are considered first-line pharmacologic therapy for osteoarthritis. They reduce inflammation and pain by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes, improving joint function and quality of life.
Choice B reason: Corticosteroids may be used in intra-articular injections for moderate to severe OA with localized inflammation, but they are not first-line systemic therapy due to side effects and limited long-term efficacy.
Choice C reason: Duloxetine is approved for chronic musculoskeletal pain and may be used in OA patients with comorbid depression or central sensitization, but it is not first-line for isolated OA.
Choice D reason: Opioids are reserved for severe pain unresponsive to other treatments due to their risk of dependence, sedation, and other adverse effects. They are not recommended as first-line therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This description applies to osteoarthritis, not osteoporosis. Osteoarthritis involves degeneration of joint cartilage and synovial structures, whereas osteoporosis affects bone density and strength.
Choice B reason: While this statement touches on bone remodeling, it inaccurately suggests that compensatory osteoblastic activity leads to structurally inferior bone. In osteoporosis, the imbalance favors osteoclastic resorption over osteoblastic formation, resulting in net bone loss.
Choice C reason: This description is characteristic of autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis. Osteoporosis is not autoimmune in nature and does not involve synovial inflammation.
Choice D reason: Osteoporosis is defined by decreased bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration due to an imbalance between bone resorption and formation. Risk factors include smoking, low BMI, Asian ethnicity, and postmenopausal status, all of which apply to this patient. The disease increases fracture risk due to weakened bone structure.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Psychotic symptoms in bipolar disorder can last longer than one month, especially during severe manic or depressive episodes. The duration alone does not differentiate bipolar disorder from schizoaffective disorder.
Choice B reason: In bipolar disorder, psychotic symptoms are mood-congruent and occur exclusively during mood episodes. In contrast, schizoaffective disorder includes psychotic symptoms that persist independently of mood disturbances, which is the key distinguishing feature.
Choice C reason: Schizoaffective disorder can include both depressive and manic or hypomanic episodes. It is not limited to depressive episodes alone. The subtype (depressive type or bipolar type) depends on the nature of the mood episodes.
Choice D reason: Schizoaffective disorder often includes full-blown episodes of major depression. The presence of major depressive episodes is part of the diagnostic criteria for the depressive subtype of schizoaffective disorder.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.