The nurse practitioner is initiating treatment for a 29-year-old man with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What is the pathogenesis of HIV?
An autoimmune disorder that results from an exaggerated systemic inflammatory response induced by infecting organisms
Weakening of the immune system by infecting and destroying CD4+ T cells, which in turn leads to immunodeficiency
Tickborne illness that can result in cognitive impairments if not treated fully
A nosocomial infection typically acquired after a surgical procedure
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: HIV is not an autoimmune disorder. Autoimmune diseases involve the immune system attacking the body's own tissues, whereas HIV is a viral infection that targets and destroys immune cells, specifically CD4+ T lymphocytes.
Choice B reason: HIV infects CD4+ T cells and macrophages, leading to progressive depletion of these cells. This impairs both cell-mediated and humoral immunity, rendering the host susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain malignancies. The virus integrates into host DNA and replicates, gradually weakening the immune system.
Choice C reason: Tickborne illnesses such as Lyme disease or babesiosis are unrelated to HIV. They are caused by different pathogens and have distinct transmission routes and pathophysiology.
Choice D reason: HIV is not a nosocomial infection. It is primarily transmitted through blood, sexual contact, and vertical transmission from mother to child. Nosocomial infections are acquired in healthcare settings and typically involve bacteria like MRSA or Pseudomonas.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Discontinuing risperidone immediately may not be necessary unless symptoms are severe or unmanageable. Clonazepam can help with akathisia, but abrupt discontinuation of antipsychotics may destabilize the patient’s psychiatric condition.
Choice B reason: Sertraline is an SSRI used for depression and anxiety, not for treating akathisia. Introducing it at this point would not address the patient’s restlessness and may complicate the clinical picture.
Choice C reason: Propranolol is effective for akathisia, but discontinuing risperidone prematurely may not be warranted. A better initial approach is to manage the side effect while continuing the antipsychotic, unless symptoms are intolerable.
Choice D reason: Akathisia is a common side effect of risperidone, especially early in treatment. Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, can help reduce restlessness and agitation. Continuing risperidone while managing the side effect is appropriate unless symptoms worsen or persist. This approach balances symptom control with psychiatric stability.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This description applies to osteoarthritis, not osteoporosis. Osteoarthritis involves degeneration of joint cartilage and synovial structures, whereas osteoporosis affects bone density and strength.
Choice B reason: While this statement touches on bone remodeling, it inaccurately suggests that compensatory osteoblastic activity leads to structurally inferior bone. In osteoporosis, the imbalance favors osteoclastic resorption over osteoblastic formation, resulting in net bone loss.
Choice C reason: This description is characteristic of autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis. Osteoporosis is not autoimmune in nature and does not involve synovial inflammation.
Choice D reason: Osteoporosis is defined by decreased bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration due to an imbalance between bone resorption and formation. Risk factors include smoking, low BMI, Asian ethnicity, and postmenopausal status, all of which apply to this patient. The disease increases fracture risk due to weakened bone structure.
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