The nurse practitioner is initiating treatment for a 29-year-old man with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What is the pathogenesis of HIV?
An autoimmune disorder that results from an exaggerated systemic inflammatory response induced by infecting organisms
Weakening of the immune system by infecting and destroying CD4+ T cells, which in turn leads to immunodeficiency
Tickborne illness that can result in cognitive impairments if not treated fully
A nosocomial infection typically acquired after a surgical procedure
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: HIV is not an autoimmune disorder. Autoimmune diseases involve the immune system attacking the body's own tissues, whereas HIV is a viral infection that targets and destroys immune cells, specifically CD4+ T lymphocytes.
Choice B reason: HIV infects CD4+ T cells and macrophages, leading to progressive depletion of these cells. This impairs both cell-mediated and humoral immunity, rendering the host susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain malignancies. The virus integrates into host DNA and replicates, gradually weakening the immune system.
Choice C reason: Tickborne illnesses such as Lyme disease or babesiosis are unrelated to HIV. They are caused by different pathogens and have distinct transmission routes and pathophysiology.
Choice D reason: HIV is not a nosocomial infection. It is primarily transmitted through blood, sexual contact, and vertical transmission from mother to child. Nosocomial infections are acquired in healthcare settings and typically involve bacteria like MRSA or Pseudomonas.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This question is designed to assess for manic or hypomanic episodes, where decreased need for sleep is a hallmark symptom. While related to sleep, it is more specific to mood disorders and not a general sleep assessment.
Choice B reason: This question targets hallucinations and is part of the psychosis screening. It does not relate to sleep patterns or quality.
Choice C reason: This question assesses for dissociative symptoms, such as amnesia or identity disturbances. It is unrelated to sleep.
Choice D reason: This question directly addresses sleep adequacy and quality, making it the most appropriate for evaluating the sleep domain in a psychiatric ROS. It helps identify insomnia, hypersomnia, or other sleep disturbances.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: NSAIDs are commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation in RA, but they do not alter the disease course or prevent joint damage. They are considered adjunctive therapy rather than first-line disease-modifying treatment.
Choice B reason: Methotrexate is the cornerstone and first-line disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) for RA. It reduces inflammation, slows disease progression, and prevents joint damage. It has a well-established efficacy and safety profile and is recommended by major rheumatology guidelines as the initial treatment for most patients with RA.
Choice C reason: Corticosteroid injections may be used for localized joint inflammation or as a bridge therapy while waiting for DMARDs to take effect. However, they are not considered first-line long-term treatment due to potential systemic side effects and lack of disease-modifying properties.
Choice D reason: Opioids are not recommended for RA management due to their risk of dependence and lack of anti-inflammatory or disease-modifying effects. They may be used in exceptional cases for severe pain but are not part of standard RA treatment protocols.
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