A 32-year-old male patient presents to the nurse practitioner for a follow-up after treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which of the following is an accurate description of GBS?
Genetic disease
Communicable disease
Infectious disease
Autoimmune disease
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Guillain-Barre syndrome is not a genetic disease. Genetic diseases are inherited through genes and are present at birth or manifest later due to gene mutations, which does not apply to GBS, as it arises after an immune response rather than being inherited.
Choice B reason: Guillain-Barre syndrome is not a communicable disease. Communicable diseases are caused by pathogens that can be transmitted from person to person. GBS is an immune-mediated condition triggered often by infections but is not directly spread between individuals.
Choice C reason: While infections can precede GBS, it is not classified as an infectious disease. An infectious disease is caused by a pathogen actively multiplying and causing illness. In GBS, the immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves, so the pathology is autoimmune rather than infectious.
Choice D reason: Guillain-Barre syndrome is correctly classified as an autoimmune disease. The immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, often after a triggering event such as a viral or bacterial infection. This immune-mediated demyelination and nerve damage explain the progressive weakness and paralysis seen in GBS.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Fluoxetine is an SSRI that may be used off-label for PTSD, but it is not specifically FDA-approved for this condition.
Choice B reason: This is correct. Sertraline is an SSRI and one of the first-line medications approved by the FDA for PTSD treatment, demonstrating efficacy in reducing core PTSD symptoms.
Choice C reason: Mirtazapine is not FDA-approved for PTSD but may be used off-label to target sleep disturbances or depressive symptoms.
Choice D reason: Lamotrigine is a mood stabilizer used primarily for bipolar disorder and not FDA-approved for PTSD management.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Social learning involves modeling behavior and reinforcement, not eliciting self-reflection on behavior.
Choice B reason: This is correct. Motivational interviewing uses open-ended questions, reflective listening, and strategic prompts to help clients recognize discrepancies between their current behavior and long-term goals, promoting intrinsic motivation to change.
Choice C reason: Person-centered therapy emphasizes empathy, unconditional positive regard, and client self-exploration, not direct elicitation of ambivalence.
Choice D reason: Transactional analysis focuses on interpersonal communication and ego states, not targeted behavioral change through motivational questioning.
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