A 40-year-old Asian male with no family history of cancer is in the office for his annual physical examination. What should the nurse teach the patient regarding the PSA blood test according to the American Cancer Society?
Should be performed at age 50 years.
Should be performed with this visit.
Should be performed at age 45 years.
dd) Is only necessary if a family history of prostate cancer exists.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: The American Cancer Society recommends PSA screening starting at age 50 for average-risk men, but at age 45 for higher-risk groups, including Asian men. This patient patient, as Asian, Asian, needs earlier screening, so age 50 is incorrect for this demographic.
Choice B reason: Starting screening at age 40 is not standard for an average-risk Asian male without symptoms. The ACS suggests age 45 for Asian men, so recommending it with this visit is premature and incorrect.
Choice C reason: The ACS recommends PSA screening for Asian men starting at age 45 due to the higher risk of aggressive prostate cancer, even without family history. This aligns with the patient’s profile, making it the correct teaching point.
Choice D reason: PSA screening is recommended for higher-risk groups like Asian men at age 45, regardless of family history. Limiting it to family history cases misses at-risk individuals, so this is incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Absent bile pigment causes pale, clay-colored stools due to impaired bile flow from liver or gallbladder issues. Black stools suggest blood or medication effects, not bile absence, making this interpretation inconsistent with the patient’s soft, black stool description.
Choice B reason: Excessive fat in stools (steatorrhea) from malabsorption causes bulky, greasy, foul-smelling stools, typically pale or light-colored, not black. The patient’s black stools point to a different etiology, such as bleeding, making this an incorrect interpretation.
Choice C reason: Increased iron intake, such as from supplements, can cause black stools, but the patient denies medications. Dietary iron alone is unlikely to produce consistently black stools without supplementation, and stomach pain suggests a pathological cause, making this less likely.
Choice D reason: Soft, black stools (melena) typically indicate occult blood from gastrointestinal bleeding, often from the upper GI tract (e.g., stomach or duodenum). Stomach pain supports this, as bleeding from ulcers or gastritis can cause both symptoms, making this the correct interpretation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Inspection visually assesses abdominal shape and distention but cannot differentiate gas from constipation, as both may cause distention. It lacks the specificity to identify the cause, making it less effective for this purpose.
Choice B reason: Auscultation assesses bowel sounds but cannot directly distinguish gas from constipation. Hyperactive sounds may suggest gas, but this is indirect, and constipation can also alter sounds, making this less specific than percussion.
Choice C reason: Percussion produces a tympanic sound over gas-filled areas, indicating air in the bowel, versus a dull sound over solid masses like feces in constipation. This directly differentiates the cause of distention, making it the correct technique.
Choice D reason: Palpation assesses tenderness or masses but cannot reliably distinguish gas from constipation, as both may feel firm or distended. It lacks the specificity of percussion’s auditory cues, making it less effective for this purpose.
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