A patient who is visiting the clinic complains of having stomach pains for 2 weeks and describes his stools as being soft and black for approximately the last 10 days. He denies taking any medications. How should the nurse interpret these symptoms?
Absent bile pigment from liver or gallbladder problems
Excessive fat in the stool caused by malabsorption
Increased iron intake, resulting from a change in diet
Occult blood resulting from gastrointestinal bleeding
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Absent bile pigment causes pale, clay-colored stools due to impaired bile flow from liver or gallbladder issues. Black stools suggest blood or medication effects, not bile absence, making this interpretation inconsistent with the patient’s soft, black stool description.
Choice B reason: Excessive fat in stools (steatorrhea) from malabsorption causes bulky, greasy, foul-smelling stools, typically pale or light-colored, not black. The patient’s black stools point to a different etiology, such as bleeding, making this an incorrect interpretation.
Choice C reason: Increased iron intake, such as from supplements, can cause black stools, but the patient denies medications. Dietary iron alone is unlikely to produce consistently black stools without supplementation, and stomach pain suggests a pathological cause, making this less likely.
Choice D reason: Soft, black stools (melena) typically indicate occult blood from gastrointestinal bleeding, often from the upper GI tract (e.g., stomach or duodenum). Stomach pain supports this, as bleeding from ulcers or gastritis can cause both symptoms, making this the correct interpretation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Telling the patient not to worry dismisses their concern and provides no educational value. Inguinal hernias, while common in older men, require explanation and monitoring, as they can lead to complications like incarceration, making this an inappropriate response.
Choice B reason: An inguinal hernia is a protrusion of bowel or tissue through a weak spot in the abdominal wall, typically in the inguinal canal. This accurate explanation addresses the patient’s question, describing the condition’s pathophysiology clearly, making it the correct response.
Choice C reason: Inguinal hernias are typically acquired due to abdominal wall weakness or increased intra-abdominal pressure, not prenatal growth abnormalities. Congenital hernias (e.g., indirect inguinal) are less common in adults, making this an inaccurate explanation for the patient’s condition.
Choice D reason: Referring the patient back to the physician avoids the nurse’s responsibility to educate. Nurses are equipped to explain diagnoses like hernias in simple terms, and deferring entirely does not address the patient’s immediate need for understanding, making this less optimal.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Superficial tenderness is assessed with light palpation, which evaluates surface sensitivity. Deep palpation probes deeper structures, like organs, and is not primarily for detecting superficial pain, making this an incorrect rationale.
Choice B reason: Bowel motility is assessed via auscultation, which detects bowel sounds, not palpation. Deep palpation evaluates organ size or masses, not dynamic motility, making this an incorrect purpose for the technique.
Choice C reason: The overall impression of skin and superficial musculature is gained through inspection and light palpation. Deep palpation targets deeper structures like organs, not surface characteristics, making this an incorrect rationale.
Choice D reason: Deep palpation is used to assess for enlarged organs, such as hepatomegaly or splenomegaly, by probing deeper abdominal structures. This allows detection of abnormal masses or organ sizes, making this the correct rationale.
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