A patient who is visiting the clinic complains of having stomach pains for 2 weeks and describes his stools as being soft and black for approximately the last 10 days. He denies taking any medications. How should the nurse interpret these symptoms?
Absent bile pigment from liver or gallbladder problems
Excessive fat in the stool caused by malabsorption
Increased iron intake, resulting from a change in diet
Occult blood resulting from gastrointestinal bleeding
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Absent bile pigment causes pale, clay-colored stools due to impaired bile flow from liver or gallbladder issues. Black stools suggest blood or medication effects, not bile absence, making this interpretation inconsistent with the patient’s soft, black stool description.
Choice B reason: Excessive fat in stools (steatorrhea) from malabsorption causes bulky, greasy, foul-smelling stools, typically pale or light-colored, not black. The patient’s black stools point to a different etiology, such as bleeding, making this an incorrect interpretation.
Choice C reason: Increased iron intake, such as from supplements, can cause black stools, but the patient denies medications. Dietary iron alone is unlikely to produce consistently black stools without supplementation, and stomach pain suggests a pathological cause, making this less likely.
Choice D reason: Soft, black stools (melena) typically indicate occult blood from gastrointestinal bleeding, often from the upper GI tract (e.g., stomach or duodenum). Stomach pain supports this, as bleeding from ulcers or gastritis can cause both symptoms, making this the correct interpretation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Asking about other drug allergies is relevant but secondary to understanding the penicillin allergy’s nature. Without clarifying the reaction’s severity (e.g., anaphylaxis vs. rash), the nurse cannot fully assess the risk, making this a less immediate response.
Choice B reason: Asking about the frequency of penicillin use does not address the nature or severity of the allergic reaction. This information is irrelevant to managing the allergy and ensuring patient safety, making it an inappropriate initial response.
Choice C reason: Asking the patient to describe their reaction to penicillin clarifies the type and severity of the allergy (e.g., rash, anaphylaxis). This informs safe medication administration and prevents adverse reactions, making it the most critical and appropriate response.
Choice D reason: Documenting the allergy is necessary but premature without understanding the reaction’s specifics. Assuming the allergy without verification could lead to incomplete charting or mismanagement, making this a less priority response compared to gathering details.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A normal tympanic membrane is not white with prominent capillaries. Such an appearance may indicate inflammation or infection (e.g., otitis media), where increased vascularity or opacity occurs, making this an abnormal and incorrect characteristic.
Choice B reason: A normal tympanic membrane is pearly gray, slightly translucent, with a visible cone of light reflecting off its taut surface. This reflects healthy middle ear anatomy, with no fluid or inflammation, making this the correct description.
Choice C reason: A pulled-in tympanic membrane suggests negative middle ear pressure, often due to eustachian tube dysfunction, not a normal finding. The normal membrane is flat or slightly concave, making this an incorrect characteristic.
Choice D reason: Light pink with a slight bulge suggests inflammation or fluid (e.g., otitis media), not a normal tympanic membrane. Normal membranes are pearly gray and flat, not pink or bulging, making this an incorrect description.
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