A 42-year-old male client tells the PMHNP he is experiencing anxiety about death, and is asking himself questions about the meaning of his life. "Why am I here and what does it matter if I am just going to die?" The PMHNP should recommend which of the following forms of therapy?
Dialectical Behavioral Therapy
Rational Emotive Behavioral Therapy
Existential Therapy
Group Therapy
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT) is primarily used for emotion regulation and managing self-harm behaviors, often in borderline personality disorder, rather than addressing existential questions about meaning and mortality.
Choice B reason: Rational Emotive Behavioral Therapy (REBT) focuses on challenging and changing irrational beliefs to reduce anxiety and depression. While it can address anxiety, it does not directly explore the philosophical concerns about life’s purpose that this patient presents.
Choice C reason: Existential therapy directly addresses questions about the meaning of life, death, freedom, and isolation. It helps individuals explore existential anxiety and personal responsibility, making it the most appropriate therapy for this patient’s concerns.
Choice D reason: Group therapy provides support and interpersonal feedback but may not allow for focused exploration of deep existential questions. While beneficial for social support, it is not the primary therapeutic approach for this type of existential anxiety.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is true; BCC typically presents as pearly papules with visible blood vessels or ulceration.
Choice B reason: This is true; BCC develops primarily on sun-exposed skin, rarely affecting mucous membranes or extremities.
Choice C reason: This is true; BCC is the most common form of skin cancer and cancer overall in humans.
Choice D reason: This is false; BCC is usually slow-growing and rarely metastasizes. Rapid growth and frequent metastasis are atypical, making this the incorrect statement.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Syphilis can cause neuropsychiatric symptoms in tertiary stages but is unlikely with an acute bull’s eye rash and flu-like symptoms preceding mood changes.
Choice B reason: Chronic fatigue syndrome is characterized by prolonged fatigue lasting at least 6 months, often with cognitive impairment, but does not usually present with a recent erythema migrans rash.
Choice C reason: This is correct. The patient’s history of a flu-like illness and a bull's eye-shaped rash (erythema migrans) is characteristic of early Lyme disease. Post-infectious neuropsychiatric symptoms such as depression and irritability may develop weeks to months after initial infection.
Choice D reason: Adult ADHD would present with long-standing attention deficits from childhood, not a sudden onset following an infectious illness.
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