A 59-year-old woman diagnosed with moderate osteoarthritis (OA) of the right knee asks the nurse practitioner about her treatment options. Which of the following is NOT considered an option for a patient with moderate OA of the knee?
Physical therapy
Corticosteroid injection for the knee
Partial or total knee replacement
Hyaluronic acid injection
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Physical therapy is a first-line, noninvasive option for managing OA symptoms.
Choice B reason: Corticosteroid injections can reduce pain and inflammation for moderate OA, making this an appropriate treatment option.
Choice C reason: Partial or total knee replacement may be considered for patients with progressive symptoms not responding to conservative measures.
Choice D reason: Hyaluronic acid injections are not routinely recommended for moderate OA due to limited evidence of efficacy, making this option incorrect in standard care recommendations.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This statement is correct because PPIs are most effective when taken once daily, ideally 30 to 60 minutes before the first meal of the day. This timing maximizes acid suppression and helps promote ulcer healing.
Choice B reason: This statement is also correct because H. pylori infection is a common underlying cause of peptic ulcer disease, and antibiotics are prescribed to eradicate this bacterium, addressing the root cause.
Choice C reason: This statement indicates a need for further teaching. NSAIDs can impair gastric mucosal defenses and increase acid production, which can exacerbate ulcer formation or prevent healing. Patients with peptic ulcers should avoid NSAIDs unless specifically approved by their healthcare provider and often need alternative pain management.
Choice D reason: This statement is correct because lifestyle modifications, such as avoiding alcohol, smoking, and certain medications, help prevent recurrence of ulcers and support overall gastrointestinal health.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: It is true that Bell’s palsy often resolves spontaneously in many patients, with approximately 70% recovering fully without intervention. This highlights the typically self-limiting nature of the disorder.
Choice B reason: Diabetes, pregnancy, preeclampsia, obesity, and hypertension are recognized risk factors for Bell’s palsy. These conditions may contribute to microvascular changes or immune responses that trigger the facial nerve dysfunction.
Choice C reason: Most cases of Bell’s palsy occur in adults between the ages of 15 and 60, not predominantly before 18 years. This statement is incorrect and therefore the correct choice for this question.
Choice D reason: Bell’s palsy can affect anyone regardless of sex or race, and it may occur at any age, supporting its classification as a non-discriminatory neurological disorder.
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