A 42-year-old woman reveals an intake of medications. Which medication if reported by the client would alert the nurse to the need to assess the client for thrombophlebitis?
Antidepressant
Antihypertensive
Oral contraceptive
Antilipid agent
The Correct Answer is C
A. Antidepressant: Antidepressants are not typically associated with a high risk of thrombophlebitis.
B. Antihypertensive: Antihypertensives generally do not increase the risk of thrombophlebitis.
C. Oral contraceptive: Oral contraceptives are known to increase the risk of thrombophlebitis due to their effect on blood clotting factors.
D. Antilipid agent: Antilipid agents, such as statins, do not commonly cause thrombophlebitis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Stress incontinence: This occurs when urine leaks due to increased abdominal pressure from activities like coughing or laughing, indicating a weakness in the pelvic floor muscles.
B. Obstructive incontinence: This is not a recognized type of urinary incontinence; it may refer to urinary obstruction issues, which are different from stress incontinence.
C. Overflow incontinence: This involves leakage due to an overfilled bladder and is not typically related to activities that increase abdominal pressure.
D. Urge incontinence: This involves a sudden, intense urge to urinate and may lead to involuntary leakage, but it is not specifically linked to coughing or laughing.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Posterior tibial: The posterior tibial pulse is palpated just behind the medial malleolus of the ankle, near the Achilles tendon.
B. Femoral: The femoral pulse is located in the groin area, where the femoral artery passes.
C. Popliteal: The popliteal pulse is palpated behind the knee in the popliteal fossa.
D. Dorsalis pedis: The dorsalis pedis pulse is located on the top of the foot, near the first metatarsal.
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