A 43 year old male presents to the ER following an MVC with paralysis of the arms and legs and loss of sensation below the shoulders. VS: BP 70/40; HR 48; RR 16; SpO2 81%. When anticipating treatment for this patient's condition, the nurse recognizes the priority goal of treatment is to:
Increase afterload
Decrease afterload
Increase preload
Decrease preload
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Increase afterload is correct because the patient is experiencing neurogenic shock, a type of distributive shock caused by spinal cord injury. Loss of sympathetic nervous system tone leads to vasodilation, hypotension, and bradycardia. Increasing afterload with vasopressors helps restore vascular tone and maintain perfusion to vital organs.
B. Decrease afterload is incorrect because the patient’s vascular tone is already too low due to vasodilation. Further decreasing afterload would worsen hypotension and tissue hypoperfusion.
C. Increase preload is incorrect because although fluids may support cardiac output, the primary problem is loss of vascular tone, not inadequate blood volume. Without restoring afterload, increasing preload alone will not effectively raise blood pressure.
D. Decrease preload is incorrect because reducing preload would lower cardiac output and further compromise tissue perfusion in an already hypotensive patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter may be necessary for accurate monitoring of urine output in burn patients, but it is not the immediate priority in the emergency assessment. Urinary monitoring is important after airway and breathing have been assessed and stabilized.
B. Inspecting the mouth for signs of inhalation injury is the priority action. Burns involving the face, neck, and chest place the client at high risk for airway compromise from edema, soot, or inhaled heat and smoke. Airway management follows the “Airway, Breathing, Circulation” (ABC) approach, and early identification of inhalation injury can be life-saving.
C. Administering intravenous pain medication is important for comfort and to reduce stress response, but it does not take priority over assessing and securing the airway in a burn patient. Pain management should be initiated after life-threatening conditions are addressed.
D. Drawing blood for a CBC helps assess hemoglobin, hematocrit, and infection risk, but laboratory evaluation is not an immediate life-saving intervention. It is secondary to airway assessment and stabilization.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Placenta previa involves abnormal placental implantation and bleeding, but it is not commonly associated with DIC unless complicated by abruptio placentae or massive hemorrhage. While obstetric complications can trigger DIC, placenta previa alone is a lower risk factor.
B. Pulmonary embolus involves vascular obstruction by a clot, but it does not typically trigger the widespread activation of clotting and fibrinolysis seen in DIC. PE primarily causes localized thrombotic events rather than systemic coagulation.
C. Clients receiving hemodialysis may be at risk for bleeding or clotting issues due to anticoagulation during dialysis, but this is not a major precipitating factor for DIC.
D. Septicemia is one of the most common causes of DIC. In severe sepsis, widespread infection triggers systemic inflammation, endothelial damage, and uncontrolled activation of the coagulation cascade. This results in both microvascular clot formation and bleeding tendencies, which are hallmark features of DIC. Therefore, the 78-year-old client with septicemia is at the highest risk.
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