A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest. While planning the client's care, the nurse should identify which of the following risks as the priority for assessment and intervention?
Infection
Airway obstruction
Paralytic ileus
Fluid imbalance
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: Infection is a serious complication of burn injuries, but not the priority risk for assessment and intervention. The nurse should monitor the client's wound healing, temperature, white blood cell count, and signs of sepsis, and administer antibiotics as prescribed. However, these measures are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
Choice B Reason: Airway obstruction is the priority risk for assessment and intervention for a client who has burns of the head, neck, and chest. The nurse should assess the client's airway patency, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, breath sounds, and signs of respiratory distress, such as stridor, wheezes, or cyanosis. The nurse should also provide humidified oxygen, suction secretions, elevate the head of the bed, and prepare for endotracheal intubation if needed. Airway obstruction can occur due to edema, inflammation, or inhalation injury of the upper airway, and can quickly lead to hypoxia, respiratory failure, and death.
Choice C Reason: Paralytic ileus is a potential complication of burn injuries, but not the priority risk for assessment and intervention. The nurse should assess the client's bowel sounds, abdominal distension, nausea, vomiting, and stool output, and administer fluids, electrolytes, and nutritional support as prescribed. However, these measures are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
Choice D Reason: Fluid imbalance is another potential complication of burn injuries, but not the priority risk for assessment and intervention. The nurse should assess the client's fluid status, urine output, vital signs, weight, and serum electrolytes, and administer intravenous fluids as prescribed. However, these measures are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because cognitive impairment that decreases over several months post-injury is more likely to occur in a client who has a diffuse axonal injury, which is a widespread damage to the brain's white mater.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because neurologic deficits that increase up to 2 weeks post-injury are more likely to occur in a client who has a subdural hematoma, which is a collection of blood between the dura and the arachnoid membranes.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a change in the level of consciousness that develops over 48 hr is more likely to occur in a client who has an intracerebral hematoma, which is a collection of blood within the brain tissue.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because a lucid period followed by an immediate loss of consciousness is a typical manifestation of an epidural hematoma, which is a collection of blood between the skull and the dura. The lucid period occurs when the initial bleeding stops and the client regains consciousness. The immediate loss of consciousness occurs when the bleeding resumes and causes increased intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect because laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Serum potassium is an electrolyte that affects the cardiac function and rhythm. A normal serum potassium range is 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, and an abnormal level can indicate hypokalemia or hyperkalemia, which can cause arrhythmias, muscle weakness, or paralysis. Therefore, monitoring serum potassium is important to detect and correct any electrolyte imbalance and prevent complications.
Choice B Reason: This choice is incorrect because bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that helps to reduce fluid retention and edema by increasing the urine output and sodium excretion. It may be used for clients who have heart failure, hypertension, or renal impairment, but it can cause hypokalemia, hypotension, or dehydration.
Therefore, administering bumetanide as prescribed can help to improve the cardiac output and reduce the preload and afterload.
Choice C Reason: This choice is correct because 0.9% normal saline IV at 50 mL/hr continuous is an inappropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. 0.9% normal saline is an isotonic solution that contains the same concentration of solutes as blood plasma. It may be used for clients who have fluid loss, dehydration, or shock, but it can worsen fluid overload and pulmonary edema in clients who have acute heart failure. Therefore, clarifying this prescription with the provider is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the client's condition.
Choice D Reason: This choice is incorrect because morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that helps to relieve pain and anxiety by binding to the opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. It may be used for clients who have moderate to severe pain, dyspnea, or chest discomfort, but it can cause respiratory depression, hypotension, or nausea. Therefore, administering morphine sulfate as prescribed can help to reduce the oxygen demand and improve the cardiac function.
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