A 44-year-old woman presents to the psychiatric nurse practitioner at the urging of, and accompanied by, her older sister. The patient identifies her sister as her “best friend.” Her chief complaint, according to the sister, is “lifelong social anxiety.” The client has a constricted affect and speaks in mostly one- or two-word answers. Her clothes are mismatched and are too large for her. The sister says, “All she wants to do is sit at home and watch Ancient Aliens.” The PMHNP asks the woman if she has ever seen a UFO, and she suspiciously says “Yes, but my sister doesn't believe me. I have had ESP ever since I saw the UFO when I was 6 years old.” Of the following, which most closely represents this clinical scenario?
Schizoid personality disorder
Schizotypal personality disorder
Paranoid personality disorder
Antisocial personality disorder
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by detachment from social relationships and a limited range of emotional expression. While the client shows social withdrawal and constricted affect, the presence of magical thinking and unusual beliefs (ESP and UFO experiences) is not typical of schizoid personality disorder.
Choice B reason: Schizotypal personality disorder includes social anxiety, eccentric behavior, odd beliefs or magical thinking, and peculiar speech or appearance. The client’s lifelong social anxiety, mismatched clothing, constricted affect, and belief in ESP following a UFO sighting are hallmark features of schizotypal personality disorder.
Choice C reason: Paranoid personality disorder involves pervasive distrust and suspicion of others. Although the client shows some suspiciousness, the presence of magical thinking and eccentric behavior is more consistent with schizotypal personality disorder.
Choice D reason: Antisocial personality disorder is marked by disregard for the rights of others, deceitfulness, impulsivity, and lack of remorse. There is no evidence of these traits in the scenario, making this diagnosis inappropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This statement is open-ended, collaborative, and empathetic. It invites the client to share concerns while positioning the PMHNP as a supportive partner. It fosters trust and sets the tone for a therapeutic alliance.
Choice B reason: This question is direct but may feel clinical or impersonal. It focuses on problems rather than the client’s experience or goals, which may hinder rapport-building.
Choice C reason: While commonly used, this question can be vague and may not encourage deeper reflection or engagement. It lacks the collaborative tone of choice A.
Choice D reason: This question is goal-oriented and useful for structuring the session, but it may be premature for a first meeting. It assumes the client has clear expectations, which may not be the case.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Bupropion is not considered teratogenic and may be continued during pregnancy if clinically indicated. It is often used for depression and smoking cessation and does not pose significant risk to fetal development.
Choice B reason: Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and is commonly used during pregnancy. While all medications carry some risk, sertraline is generally considered safe and is often preferred for treating depression and anxiety in pregnant patients.
Choice C reason: Herbal products and supplements vary widely in safety and efficacy. While some may be contraindicated in pregnancy, the question asks for a specific medication that must be stopped, making this option less precise.
Choice D reason: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and is associated with risks during pregnancy, including fetal sedation, withdrawal symptoms, and potential teratogenic effects. It is generally avoided unless absolutely necessary, making it the correct answer in this context.
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