A 45-year-old man with chronic alcoholism appears in the emergency department with disorientation and confusion. A neurologic examination shows ataxia and disconjugate eye movements. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Promethazine 25 mg IV prn
Thiamine (vitamin B1) 100 mg PO BID
Lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg IV q 4 hr
Potassium (Klor-Con M) 10 mEq PO with food once daily
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Promethazine is an antiemetic and sedative, but it does not address the underlying neurologic symptoms associated with chronic alcoholism. It is not appropriate for treating Wernicke’s encephalopathy or thiamine deficiency.
Choice B reason: Thiamine deficiency is common in chronic alcoholism and can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy, characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Thiamine supplementation is the first-line treatment and should be administered promptly to prevent progression to Korsakoff syndrome.
Choice C reason: Lorazepam may be used for alcohol withdrawal symptoms but does not treat the neurologic deficits caused by thiamine deficiency. It may worsen confusion and sedation if not properly indicated.
Choice D reason: Potassium supplementation may be necessary in alcoholics due to electrolyte imbalances, but it does not address the acute neurologic symptoms. It is not the most appropriate immediate treatment in this scenario.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering another 3 mg of flumazenil immediately after a failed response to the initial dose is not recommended due to the risk of precipitating seizures, especially in patients with chronic benzodiazepine use or co-ingestion of pro-convulsant substances. Flumazenil has a narrow therapeutic window and should be titrated cautiously.
Choice B reason: Although smaller incremental doses of flumazenil (e.g., 0.2–1 mg) may be used in some protocols, repeated dosing after a cumulative 3 mg without response is generally discouraged. The risk of adverse effects, particularly seizures, increases with higher cumulative doses.
Choice C reason: Waiting 20 minutes and administering another 3 mg would exceed the recommended maximum cumulative dose of flumazenil, which is typically 3–5 mg. This approach increases the risk of serious complications and is not supported by clinical guidelines.
Choice D reason: If a patient does not respond to a total of 3 mg of flumazenil, further administration is not advised. The lack of response suggests that the cause of altered mental status may not be due to benzodiazepines alone or that the patient has developed tolerance. Supportive care and airway management should be prioritized.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This statement is dismissive and lacks clinical and legal assessment. Competence cannot be determined over the phone or without a formal evaluation. It also assumes facts not in evidence.
Choice B reason: Competence is a legal determination made by a judge, not a medical provider. While clinicians can assess decision-making capacity, they cannot declare someone legally incompetent. This response is accurate and maintains professional boundaries.
Choice C reason: This statement implies agreement with the son’s concern without proper evaluation. It may be interpreted as bias and could compromise the therapeutic relationship or legal standing.
Choice D reason: While offering a referral is helpful, it does not address the core issue of legal authority. The PMHNP must clarify that competence is a legal matter, which is best done in option B.
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