A 48-year-old woman presents to the nurse practitioner with a history of nonspecific back pain between the lower rib margin and the gluteal folds for 3 months. She reports significant emotional distress and functional impairment related to this ongoing pain. She denies a history of injury or trauma to her back or neck. Which of the following is INCORRECT about chronic lower back pain?
Diagnostic testing is not indicated for the vast majority of low back pain patients.
X-rays or MRI may be indicated for back pain that persists beyond initial treatment.
To reduce back pain, cognitive behavioral therapy is recommended in combination with physical therapy.
Opioid medications are first-line treatments in clinical guidelines for the management of chronic low back pain.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: This is correct; most low back pain is nonspecific and does not require imaging unless there are red flags.
Choice B reason: Imaging may be indicated if pain persists despite conservative management or if there are neurologic deficits, making this statement accurate.
Choice C reason: Combining cognitive behavioral therapy with physical therapy is evidence-based and effective in improving outcomes for chronic low back pain.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect. Opioids are not first-line treatment due to risks of dependence, overdose, and limited efficacy. First-line management emphasizes non-pharmacologic strategies and non-opioid medications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: The PHQ-9 is a tool used primarily to assess depressive symptoms and is not designed to track anxiety severity or response to anti-anxiety medications.
Choice B reason: The BPRS evaluates psychotic and general psychiatric symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and affective disturbances. It is not specific to anxiety measurement.
Choice C reason: The STAI measures state and trait anxiety but is less commonly used in clinical practice to track response to pharmacologic treatment in generalized anxiety disorder compared to the HAM-A, which is a standard tool.
Choice D reason: The HAM-A is a clinician-rated scale that assesses the severity of anxiety symptoms over time. It is widely used to monitor treatment response in generalized anxiety disorder, making it the most appropriate tool in this context.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pneumonia presents with infection-related symptoms and radiographic changes, not reversible airway obstruction or hyperreactivity.
Choice B reason: Correct. Asthma is characterized by reversible airway obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, inflammation, and structural changes like smooth muscle hypertrophy, which matches this clinical picture.
Choice C reason: Bronchitis involves inflammation of the bronchi, often due to infection, and does not typically produce reversible airway obstruction or chronic airway changes.
Choice D reason: Sinusitis affects the sinuses, not the lower airways, and would not account for wheezing or bronchial hyperreactivity.
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