A 49-year-old male presents with chest pain.
An EKG reveals ST elevation, and he is diagnosed with myocardial ischemia. Which of the following interventions would be most beneficial for this patient?
Encourage exercise to increase heart rate.
Administer a diuretic to decrease volume.
Give an antibiotic to decrease infection.
Apply oxygen to increase myocardial oxygen supply.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Encouraging exercise to increase heart rate in a patient with myocardial ischemia could potentially worsen the condition. Exercise increases the demand for oxygen in the heart, which may not be met due to the reduced blood flow in ischemia, potentially leading to further damage.
Choice B rationale
Administering a diuretic to decrease volume is not the most beneficial intervention for a patient with myocardial ischemia. While diuretics can reduce the workload of the heart by decreasing blood volume, they do not directly address the issue of reduced blood flow to the heart muscle that characterizes ischemia.
Choice C rationale
Giving an antibiotic to decrease infection is not relevant in this context. Myocardial ischemia is not caused by an infection, but by a reduction in blood flow to the heart muscle, often due to a blockage in one or more of the coronary arteries.
Choice D rationale
Applying oxygen to increase myocardial oxygen supply is the most beneficial intervention for a patient with myocardial ischemia. Oxygen therapy can help to meet the oxygen demand of the heart muscle when blood flow is reduced, alleviating symptoms and preventing further damage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 39-year-old patient experiencing tenderness and swelling in the right calf following a flight may be experiencing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a condition that can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism if not treated. However, DVT is not immediately life-threatening in most cases.
Choice B rationale
A 58-year-old patient on anticoagulants for atrial fibrillation presenting with black stools is likely experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding, a common side effect of anticoagulant therapy. This can lead to severe blood loss, anemia, and hypovolemic shock, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Therefore, this patient should be prioritized for assessment.
Choice C rationale
A 67-year-old patient with a gangrenous foot ulcer and a weak pedal pulse likely has peripheral artery disease and an infection that could lead to sepsis if not treated. However, while this condition needs medical attention, it is not as immediately life-threatening as gastrointestinal bleeding.
Choice D rationale
A 50-year-old patient reporting sudden, severe upper back pain could be experiencing a number of conditions, ranging from musculoskeletal strain to aortic dissection. While an aortic dissection is a medical emergency, without additional symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or loss of consciousness, this patient is not the highest priority.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Prolonged PR intervals occur with first-degree AV block, not typically with pericarditis.
Choice B rationale
Clubbing of the fingers is a loss of the normal angle between the base of the nail and the skin. This finding can be found in endocarditis, congenital defects, and/or prolonged oxygen deficiency. It is not a typical manifestation of pericarditis.
Choice C rationale
Widened pulse pressure occurs with valvular heart disease, not typically with pericarditis.
Choice D rationale
Pulsus paradoxus is a sign of cardiac tamponade, a serious complication of pericarditis. As the compression of the heart increases, decreased left atrial filling decreases cardiac output.
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