A 20-year-old female is being admitted to the hospital with fever and septic shock. Which set of assessment findings would the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

Bradycardia, palpitations, confusion, truncal rash.

Severe respiratory distress, jugular venous distention, chest pain.

Low blood pressure and tachycardia.

Reduced cardiac output, increased systemic vascular resistance, moist cough.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale
Bradycardia, palpitations, confusion, and truncal rash are not typically associated with septic shock. Septic shock is a severe infection that occurs when bacteria enter the bloodstream. It can cause organs to fail and can lead to death.
Choice B rationale
Severe respiratory distress, jugular venous distention, and chest pain are more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or pulmonary embolism, not septic shock.
Choice C rationale
Low blood pressure and tachycardia are common symptoms of septic shock. This happens because the body’s response to the infection causes blood vessels to dilate, which can lower blood pressure. The heart rate often increases (tachycardia) in an attempt to maintain blood flow to the organs.
Choice D rationale
Reduced cardiac output, increased systemic vascular resistance, and a moist cough are not typical symptoms of septic shock. These symptoms are more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Reducing the overall contractility of the heart muscle is not the primary reason for performing Coronary Artery Bypass Surgery (CABG)4. In fact, reducing the contractility of the heart muscle could potentially decrease the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively.
Choice B rationale
Reducing plaque buildup in the carotid artery is not the primary reason for performing CABG4. While plaque buildup in the carotid artery can lead to serious conditions such as stroke, CABG is specifically performed to bypass blocked coronary arteries, not carotid arteries.
Choice C rationale
Increasing the oxygen supply to the heart muscle is the primary reason for performing CABG4. When coronary arteries become blocked or narrowed due to plaque buildup, the heart muscle may not receive enough oxygen-rich blood. CABG is performed to create a new route, or bypass, around the blocked artery, which improves blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart muscle.
Choice D rationale
Increasing the myocardial workload is not the primary reason for performing CABG4. In fact, increasing the workload of the heart could potentially exacerbate heart disease and lead to complications such as heart failure.

A. A 59-year-old patient with unstable angina who has just returned from a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). B. A 56-year-old patient with variant angina due to receive nifedipine (Procardia). C. A 65-year-old patient who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 4 days ago and is anxious about discharge planned for today. D. A 39-year-old patient with pericarditis complaining of sharp, stabbing chest pain.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale
A 59-year-old patient with unstable angina who has just returned from a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) should be prioritized for assessment. PCI is a procedure to open blocked or narrowed coronary arteries and can lead to complications such as re-occlusion of the artery or bleeding from the catheter insertion site. Furthermore, unstable angina is a condition that can progress to myocardial infarction if not managed effectively.
Choice B rationale
A 56-year-old patient with variant angina due to receive nifedipine (Procardia) requires monitoring, but is not the highest priority. Variant angina is a form of angina that occurs at rest, often with severe pain, but it is usually well-controlled with medications like nifedipine.
Choice C rationale
A 65-year-old patient who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 4 days ago and is anxious about discharge planned for today is a lower priority for assessment. While it’s important to address the patient’s anxiety and provide education about post-discharge care, this patient is not in immediate danger.
Choice D rationale
A 39-year-old patient with pericarditis complaining of sharp, stabbing chest pain requires assessment, but is not the highest priority. Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like covering of the heart, and while it can cause severe pain, it is not typically life- threatening.

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A 20-year-old female is being admitted to the hospital with fever and septic shock. Which set of assessment findings would the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What is the primary pathophysiological reason for performing Coronary Artery Bypass Surgery?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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