A 54 year old is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. What is the most likely cause of this?
hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels
infections of H. pylori and increased secretions of HCI and pepsin
decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement
gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux
The Correct Answer is B
A. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels: Excess gastrin production can lead to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, a rare cause of peptic ulcers. While it can increase acid secretion, it is not the most common cause of typical peptic ulcer disease.
B. Infections of H. pylori and increased secretions of HCl and pepsin: Infection with Helicobacter pylori is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease. The bacteria damage the mucosal lining, and combined with increased gastric acid (HCl) and pepsin secretion, this leads to ulcer formation.
C. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement: Reduced vagal stimulation would decrease acid secretion rather than increase it, and vascular engorgement is not a primary mechanism in peptic ulcer formation.
D. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux: Bile reflux can contribute to gastric irritation but is not a primary cause of peptic ulcer disease. High ammonia levels are not a recognized factor in ulcer formation, making this an unlikely explanation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Iron deficiency: Iron deficiency anemia results from inadequate iron for hemoglobin synthesis, leading to small, pale red blood cells. The bone marrow itself is usually functioning normally, but the substrate for RBC production is insufficient.
B. Pernicious: Pernicious anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, often due to intrinsic factor deficiency. While red blood cell production is affected, the underlying problem is nutritional and not a direct malfunction of the bone marrow.
C. Sickle cell: Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder causing abnormal hemoglobin formation, leading to sickle-shaped red blood cells. The bone marrow can produce red blood cells, but they are structurally defective and have a shortened lifespan.
D. Aplastic: Aplastic anemia occurs when the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. This primary marrow dysfunction leads to pancytopenia and is directly related to impaired hematopoiesis.
E. Hemolytic: Hemolytic anemia results from premature destruction of red blood cells, either inherited or acquired. The bone marrow may respond by increasing RBC production, so the marrow itself is not the primary site of dysfunction.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Pancreatic changes: Pancreatic dysfunction, such as decreased insulin secretion, contributes to hyperglycemia in type II diabetes but is not the direct cause of microvascular or macrovascular complications. The structural changes in the pancreas lead to metabolic disturbances rather than vascular damage.
B. Hyperglycemia: Chronic elevated blood glucose levels damage endothelial cells, promote inflammation, and lead to glycation of proteins. This results in microvascular complications (retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy) and macrovascular complications (atherosclerosis, coronary artery disease, stroke). Hyperglycemia is the primary mediator of vascular injury in type II diabetes.
C. Ketone toxicity: Ketone accumulation occurs mainly in type I diabetes during diabetic ketoacidosis. While ketones can cause metabolic acidosis, they are not a typical contributor to long-term microvascular or macrovascular complications in type II diabetes.
D. Hyperinsulinemia: Insulin resistance may lead to compensatory hyperinsulinemia in early type II diabetes, but this alone does not cause the vascular complications seen over time. The damage results primarily from persistent hyperglycemia rather than elevated insulin levels.
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