A 55 year old woman reports stress incontinence when sneezing and playing tennis.
She asks what she can do to prevent this from happening.
Which response would the nurse provide first?
"I will ask your provider to start you on an anticholinergic medication.”.
"Void immediately prior to playing tennis to decrease urine loss while playing and train the bladder.”.
"Choose more supportive undergarments.”.
"Restrict intake of calcium containing foods.”. — . . .
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Anticholinergic medications, such as oxybutynin or tolterodine, are typically used to treat urge incontinence by blocking muscarinic receptors in the bladder, which decreases involuntary detrusor muscle contractions. While they may be considered for mixed or severe stress incontinence, non-pharmacological behavioral therapies, like timed voiding and pelvic floor muscle exercises (Kegels), are the initial, first-line interventions due to their low risk.
Choice B rationale
Voiding immediately prior to activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, like playing tennis or sneezing, is a primary, first-line behavioral strategy for managing stress incontinence. This action ensures the bladder volume is minimized, reducing the pressure exerted on the urethral sphincter and consequently decreasing the likelihood and volume of urine loss during the activity.
Choice C rationale
Choosing more supportive undergarments, such as specialized incontinence pads or absorbent liners, addresses the management of urine leakage but does not address the underlying cause or provide a preventative strategy for the stress incontinence itself. While helpful for comfort and hygiene, this is a secondary measure, not the initial treatment of choice.
Choice D rationale
Restricting calcium-containing foods is not an established or beneficial intervention for stress incontinence. Dietary restrictions are mainly focused on bladder irritants like caffeine, alcohol, and acidic foods. Furthermore, restricting calcium intake is detrimental to bone health, especially in post-menopausal women who are already at risk for osteoporosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["2"]
Explanation
Step 1 is: Determine the number of milligrams needed per dose. 650 mg per dose.
Step 2 is: Determine the number of milligrams available per tablet. 325 mg per tablet.
Step 3 is: Calculate the number of tablets to administer. 650 mg ÷ (325 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets. The nurse should administer 2 tablets.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While a pregnancy test is important in a sexually active woman presenting with urinary symptoms to rule out ectopic pregnancy or potential teratogenic antibiotic exposure, the initial step must be to gather comprehensive data. A pregnancy test is a diagnostic tool, and its necessity follows the initial data collection for context.
Choice B rationale
A thorough history and physical examination is the fundamental first step in evaluating any patient, regardless of the chief complaint. This process allows the healthcare provider to gather subjective and objective data, assess risk factors, narrow the differential diagnosis for the dysuria, hematuria, and frequency, and guide appropriate diagnostic testing, such as a urine sample.
Choice C rationale
A urine culture is a specific diagnostic test used to identify the causative organism in a suspected urinary tract infection. Although a urine sample collection will likely follow the initial assessment, ordering the culture before a thorough history and physical is premature and does not follow the standard, systematic approach to patient care.
Choice D rationale
Starting empiric antibiotics without a thorough assessment and potential diagnostic confirmation is poor medical practice. Although the symptoms strongly suggest a urinary tract infection, a course of antibiotics should only be initiated after a history and physical and, ideally, after obtaining a urine sample for testing to ensure appropriate, targeted therapy. —.
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