A 59-year-old man presents to the nurse practitioner with a poorly demarcated, warm, erythematous area on his lower right leg. It is associated with edema and produces tenderness on palpation. What is the pathogenesis of cellulitis?
Cellulitis most commonly results from infection with group A beta hemolytic Streptococcus.
Cellulitis is the result of obstruction and inflammation of pilosebaceous units.
Sustained inflammation leads to uncontrolled keratinocyte proliferation and dysfunctional differentiation.
The disease can be triggered by psychological factors such as stress, and by exposure to certain environmental substances or allergens.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Cellulitis is a bacterial infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissues, most commonly caused by group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus and Staphylococcus aureus. It presents with warmth, erythema, swelling, and tenderness, often with systemic symptoms. The infection typically enters through breaks in the skin.
Choice B reason: This describes acne or folliculitis, which involves inflammation of pilosebaceous units. Cellulitis affects deeper layers of the skin and is not limited to hair follicles.
Choice C reason: This describes the pathogenesis of psoriasis, a chronic inflammatory skin condition. Psoriasis involves keratinocyte hyperproliferation, not infection.
Choice D reason: Psychological stress and environmental allergens may exacerbate certain dermatologic conditions like eczema or urticaria, but they are not causative factors in cellulitis, which is infectious in origin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Primary syphilis typically presents with a single, painless, indurated ulcer known as a chancre at the site of inoculation. This lesion is highly characteristic and usually appears within 2–3 weeks of exposure. It is often unnoticed by patients due to its painless nature and resolves spontaneously, although the infection persists systemically.
Choice B reason: Herpes simplex virus usually causes painful vesicular lesions that may ulcerate. These lesions are often multiple and associated with burning or tingling sensations. The presentation of a painless, indurated lesion does not match HSV.
Choice C reason: Human papillomavirus (HPV) typically causes genital warts—soft, flesh-colored, cauliflower-like lesions. These are not indurated or ulcerative and are usually painless but do not resemble the described chancre.
Choice D reason: Latent syphilis refers to a stage of syphilis where the infection is present but asymptomatic. There are no visible lesions during this phase, making it inconsistent with the current physical findings.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Iron deficiency anemia is classically microcytic and hypochromic, meaning the red blood cells are smaller than normal (decreased MCV) and have reduced hemoglobin content. Additionally, RDW is increased due to anisocytosis, which reflects a wide variation in red blood cell sizes as the bone marrow releases immature cells in response to iron deficiency. This pattern is one of the earliest and most consistent hematologic findings in iron deficiency anemia.
Choice B reason: A decreased RDW is not typical in iron deficiency anemia. RDW tends to rise as the body attempts to compensate for anemia by producing red blood cells of varying sizes. A low RDW would suggest a more uniform population of red cells, which is not characteristic of iron deficiency.
Choice C reason: Increased MCV is seen in macrocytic anemias such as those caused by vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. Iron deficiency anemia is microcytic, not macrocytic, and therefore MCV would be decreased, not increased.
Choice D reason: MCHC is typically decreased in iron deficiency anemia due to the reduced hemoglobin concentration in red blood cells. An increased MCHC would suggest hyperchromic anemia, which is not consistent with iron deficiency.
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