A 68-year-old woman is referred to the PMHNP 4 months after her husband died. The referral was made by the woman's primary care physician. She reported to the physician that she can hear her deceased husband's voice calling out to her as she is falling asleep. This usually happens after she has been talking about him with friends or looking through old photo albums. The PCP is worried the patient is having a psychotic episode and would like her to have a psychiatric evaluation. Which of the following statements explains why her symptoms are not considered to be psychotic?
The voice calls her name
The voice is that of a close family member
The voice does not command her to do anything
The voice calls out as she is falling asleep
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: The content of the voice (calling her name) does not determine whether the experience is psychotic. Psychotic hallucinations are typically persistent, intrusive, and occur during full wakefulness. Calling her name alone does not rule in or out psychosis.
Choice B reason: Hearing the voice of a close family member can occur in both psychotic and non-psychotic contexts. Bereavement-related hallucinations often involve familiar voices and are considered normal if they are transient and occur in specific emotional contexts.
Choice C reason: The absence of command hallucinations reduces the risk of harm but does not alone determine whether the experience is psychotic. Non-command hallucinations can still be part of psychosis if they are persistent and occur outside sleep transitions.
Choice D reason: Hypnagogic hallucinations—those occurring as one is falling asleep—are considered normal phenomena and not indicative of psychosis. In the context of recent bereavement and emotional triggers, this experience is consistent with a non-pathological grief response.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Celiac disease can cause iron deficiency anemia due to malabsorption, but it is less likely to present with overt gastrointestinal bleeding, especially in older adults. While it should be considered in chronic anemia, it is not the most likely cause in this context.
Choice B reason: Malignancy, particularly colorectal cancer, is a leading cause of iron deficiency anemia and gastrointestinal bleeding in men over 50. Occult or overt bleeding from a tumor can lead to chronic iron loss, and this presentation warrants urgent investigation for gastrointestinal malignancy.
Choice C reason: Parasitic infestation is a more common cause of iron deficiency anemia in children or individuals in endemic areas. It is less likely to be the cause in an older adult in a non-endemic setting, especially when gastrointestinal bleeding is present.
Choice D reason: Increased systemic requirements for iron are typically seen in growth phases, pregnancy, or chronic blood loss. In older men, this is not a common cause of iron deficiency anemia and does not explain gastrointestinal bleeding.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Von Willebrand disease is indeed a hereditary bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), which plays a crucial role in platelet adhesion and stabilization of factor VIII. This statement is accurate.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect. Von Willebrand factor does not function independently of factor VIII. In fact, vWF serves as a carrier protein for factor VIII, protecting it from degradation in circulation. A deficiency in vWF can lead to secondary reductions in factor VIII levels, contributing to bleeding symptoms.
Choice C reason: vWF mediates platelet adhesion to the subendothelial matrix by binding to glycoprotein Ib-IX on the platelet surface. This interaction is essential for the initial steps of hemostasis. The statement is correct.
Choice D reason: VWD typically causes mild to moderate bleeding symptoms, such as easy bruising, nosebleeds, and prolonged bleeding after minor injuries. Severe bleeding is less common, especially in type 1 VWD. This statement is accurate.
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