The student nurse practitioner and her preceptor are reviewing images from a colposcopy conducted on a 29-year-old female patient. The student remarks to the preceptor that the patient's cervix looks like a "strawberry." What is this finding most consistent with?
Primary syphilis
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Trichomonas
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Primary syphilis typically presents with a painless chancre at the site of inoculation. It does not cause a strawberry-like appearance of the cervix. Syphilitic lesions are ulcerative and not associated with the described colposcopic finding.
Choice B reason: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes painful vesicular or ulcerative lesions on the genital mucosa. It does not produce the characteristic strawberry cervix appearance seen in colposcopy.
Choice C reason: Human papillomavirus (HPV) is associated with cervical dysplasia and warts. Colposcopic findings may include acetowhite changes, mosaicism, or punctation, but not the strawberry cervix appearance.
Choice D reason: Trichomonas vaginalis infection is classically associated with a "strawberry cervix," which refers to punctate hemorrhages on the cervical mucosa. This is a hallmark finding in trichomoniasis and supports the diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Osteoarthritis is not caused by bacterial infection. While septic arthritis involves infection, OA is a degenerative joint disease resulting from mechanical wear and tear, not infectious etiology.
Choice B reason: OA is not an autoimmune disorder and is not linked to Epstein-Barr virus. Autoimmune joint diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis involve immune-mediated synovial inflammation, which is not characteristic of OA.
Choice C reason: This description applies to rheumatoid arthritis, not OA. In RA, synovial inflammation leads to joint destruction and deformity due to autoimmune mechanisms. OA involves cartilage degeneration without significant synovial inflammation.
Choice D reason: OA is a chronic, progressive condition characterized by the breakdown of articular cartilage, subchondral bone remodeling, and joint space narrowing. It leads to pain, stiffness, and reduced mobility, especially in weight-bearing joints like the hips.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Structural group therapy may be beneficial for social skills and peer support but is not sufficient for managing medication nonadherence in chronic schizophrenia. It lacks the intensive, individualized outreach needed for this scenario.
Choice B reason: Inpatient hospitalization is appropriate for acute psychiatric crises, such as danger to self or others, but may not be necessary if the patient is stable and simply nonadherent. It is not a long-term solution for chronic management.
Choice C reason: Intensive outpatient programs provide structured treatment but may not offer the level of outreach and flexibility needed for patients who are resistant to care or disengaged from services.
Choice D reason: Assertive Community Treatment (ACT) is a multidisciplinary, team-based approach designed for individuals with severe mental illness who are nonadherent or difficult to engage. It includes outreach, medication management, and support in the community, making it the most appropriate choice for this client.
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