A 6-month-old infant is diagnosed with a congenital heart defect that causes a left-to-right shunt, resulting in increased pulmonary blood flow. Which of the following defects is most likely?
Coarctation of the Aorta
Tetralogy of Fallot
Transposition of the Great Arteries
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
The Correct Answer is D
A. Coarctation of the Aorta is incorrect because this defect causes obstruction of blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. It is a pressure load problem (left ventricular hypertension) rather than a left-to-right shunt, and it does not primarily increase pulmonary blood flow.
B. Tetralogy of Fallot is incorrect because this is a cyanotic defect characterized by right-to-left shunting due to pulmonary stenosis and a VSD. Pulmonary blood flow is often decreased rather than increased.
C. Transposition of the Great Arteries is incorrect because this is a cyanotic defect in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle, resulting in parallel circulation. Pulmonary blood flow is not increased by a left-to-right shunt.
D. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) is correct because it is a acyanotic defect that allows blood to flow from the left ventricle (higher pressure) to the right ventricle (lower pressure). This left-to-right shunt increases pulmonary blood flow, which can lead to symptoms such as tachypnea, poor weight gain, and frequent respiratory infections. VSDs are the most common congenital heart defect in infants.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Thrombocytopenia is incorrect as the primary pathophysiology of leukemia. While thrombocytopenia can occur in leukemia due to bone marrow crowding and decreased platelet production, it is a secondary consequence, not the main mechanism.
B. Unrestricted proliferation of immature white blood cells (WBCs) is correct because leukemia is characterized by uncontrolled proliferation of immature leukocytes (blasts) in the bone marrow. These immature cells accumulate and crowd out normal hematopoietic cells, leading to anemia, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia, which cause the clinical manifestations of infection, bleeding, and fatigue.
C. Increased blood viscosity is incorrect because this is more characteristic of polycythemia vera, not leukemia. Leukemia generally does not increase blood viscosity unless there is an extremely high white blood cell count in leukostasis.
D. First stage of coagulation process is abnormally stimulated is incorrect because coagulation abnormalities may develop in some forms of leukemia (e.g., acute promyelocytic leukemia with DIC), but this is not the fundamental pathophysiology of leukemia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Limiting physical activity and keeping the child in bed is incorrect because children with VP shunts do not need prolonged bed rest. Normal activity is encouraged as long as it is safe; the shunt is designed to withstand routine movement.
B. Managing fever with over-the-counter medications and waiting 3 days to call the provider is incorrect because fever may indicate a shunt infection, which is a medical emergency. Prompt assessment is essential for early intervention.
C. Flushing the shunt at home is incorrect because VP shunts should never be flushed by caregivers; doing so could cause serious injury or infection. Shunt function is monitored by observing for signs of malfunction, not by manual flushing.
D. Watching for sudden vomiting, headache, or changes in behavior and notifying the provider immediately is correct because these are key signs of shunt malfunction or increased intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. Early recognition and prompt medical evaluation are critical for preventing complications such as brain damage or infection.
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