A 6-month-old infant is diagnosed with a congenital heart defect that causes a left-to-right shunt, resulting in increased pulmonary blood flow. Which of the following defects is most likely?
Coarctation of the Aorta
Tetralogy of Fallot
Transposition of the Great Arteries
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
The Correct Answer is D
A. Coarctation of the Aorta is incorrect because this defect causes obstruction of blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. It is a pressure load problem (left ventricular hypertension) rather than a left-to-right shunt, and it does not primarily increase pulmonary blood flow.
B. Tetralogy of Fallot is incorrect because this is a cyanotic defect characterized by right-to-left shunting due to pulmonary stenosis and a VSD. Pulmonary blood flow is often decreased rather than increased.
C. Transposition of the Great Arteries is incorrect because this is a cyanotic defect in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle, resulting in parallel circulation. Pulmonary blood flow is not increased by a left-to-right shunt.
D. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) is correct because it is a acyanotic defect that allows blood to flow from the left ventricle (higher pressure) to the right ventricle (lower pressure). This left-to-right shunt increases pulmonary blood flow, which can lead to symptoms such as tachypnea, poor weight gain, and frequent respiratory infections. VSDs are the most common congenital heart defect in infants.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Visual Analog Scale (VAS) is incorrect because it requires the child to understand and mark a point on a line to represent pain intensity, which is often too complex for a 4-year-old, especially if they cannot verbalize pain reliably.
B. FLACC scale is correct. The FLACC (Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, Consolability) scale is an observational tool designed for children who cannot self-report pain. It assesses behavioral and physiological indicators of pain including facial expression, leg movement, activity level, crying, and consolability. Scores range from 0 to 10, allowing for objective assessment and monitoring of pain in young children, infants, or nonverbal patients.
C. Faces Pain Scale is incorrect because it relies on the child’s ability to understand and point to a facial expression that represents their pain. While appropriate for some preschoolers, a 4-year-old who cannot reliably verbalize or comprehend the scale may not use it accurately.
D. Numeric Rating Scale is incorrect because it requires the child to assign a number (0–10) to describe pain, which is generally suitable for children aged 7 and older who can understand abstract numerical concepts.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hydralazine is incorrect because it is an antihypertensive used to lower blood pressure in preeclampsia or eclampsia, but it does not reverse magnesium sulfate toxicity, which is the immediate concern given the symptoms of respiratory depression, oliguria, and absent deep tendon reflexes.
B. Methylergonovine is incorrect because it is a uterotonic used to control postpartum hemorrhage. It is not indicated for magnesium toxicity and would not address the life-threatening respiratory and neuromuscular effects of magnesium sulfate overdose.
C. Calcium gluconate is correct because it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Symptoms of toxicity include respiratory depression (RR <12), oliguria (<30 mL/hr), absent deep tendon reflexes, and eventually cardiac arrhythmias or arrest. Administering 10 mL of 10% calcium gluconate IV over 3–5 minutes can rapidly reverse neuromuscular and cardiac effects while supportive care (e.g., stopping magnesium infusion and monitoring) is continued.
D. Narcan is incorrect because it is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It has no effect on magnesium sulfate toxicity and would not address the neuromuscular or respiratory compromise in this patient.
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