A 62-year-old man presents to his nurse practitioner with complaints of urinary frequency, urinary hesitancy, weak stream, and an inability to completely empty his bladder. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is within normal limits. What is the pathology of this phenomenon?
Malignant prostatic hyperplasia
Malignant prostatic hypertrophy
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hypoplasia
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Malignant prostatic hyperplasia is not a recognized medical term. Malignancy of the prostate refers to prostate cancer, which typically presents with elevated PSA levels and may include systemic symptoms or nodular findings on examination. This patient’s normal PSA and obstructive urinary symptoms point away from malignancy.
Choice B reason: Malignant prostatic hypertrophy is also not a standard diagnosis. Hypertrophy refers to enlargement, but when paired with “malignant,” it implies cancer. Again, the absence of elevated PSA and systemic signs makes this unlikely.
Choice C reason: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is the most common cause of urinary symptoms in older men. It involves non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, which compresses the urethra and impairs urine flow. Symptoms include frequency, hesitancy, weak stream, and incomplete emptying—all present in this case.
Choice D reason: Benign prostatic hypoplasia refers to underdevelopment of the prostate, which is rare and not associated with obstructive urinary symptoms. It does not fit the clinical presentation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: While schizophrenia often begins in late adolescence or early adulthood, this age range is more typical for males. Women tend to have a slightly later onset, often in their late twenties to early thirties.
Choice B reason: The typical age of onset for schizophrenia in women is between 25 and 35 years. This later onset compared to men may be influenced by hormonal factors such as estrogen, which has neuroprotective effects and may delay symptom emergence.
Choice C reason: The 16–20 age range is more characteristic of early-onset schizophrenia, which is rare and more frequently observed in males. It is not the typical age range for women.
Choice D reason: Onset between 40–50 years is considered late-onset schizophrenia, which is uncommon and more frequently seen in women, but it is not typical. Most cases in women begin earlier.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is mildly elevated and not within the normal range. Doing nothing would be inappropriate, especially in a patient with heart failure, where hyperkalemia can precipitate arrhythmias.
Choice B reason: Immediate hospital admission is not warranted for a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L unless there are ECG changes or symptoms of hyperkalemia. This step would be premature without further assessment.
Choice C reason: IV fluids are not the first-line treatment for mild hyperkalemia unless there is volume depletion or renal impairment. Rechecking potassium without assessing cardiac status could miss potentially dangerous arrhythmias.
Choice D reason: An electrocardiogram (ECG) is the appropriate next step to assess for cardiac effects of hyperkalemia. ECG changes such as peaked T waves or widened QRS complexes would guide further management, including possible hospital admission or urgent treatment. This approach balances safety and clinical judgment.
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