A 62-year-old man presents to his nurse practitioner with complaints of urinary frequency, urinary hesitancy, weak stream, and an inability to completely empty his bladder. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is within normal limits. What is the pathology of this phenomenon?
Malignant prostatic hyperplasia
Malignant prostatic hypertrophy
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hypoplasia
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Malignant prostatic hyperplasia is not a recognized medical term. Malignancy of the prostate refers to prostate cancer, which typically presents with elevated PSA levels and may include systemic symptoms or nodular findings on examination. This patient’s normal PSA and obstructive urinary symptoms point away from malignancy.
Choice B reason: Malignant prostatic hypertrophy is also not a standard diagnosis. Hypertrophy refers to enlargement, but when paired with “malignant,” it implies cancer. Again, the absence of elevated PSA and systemic signs makes this unlikely.
Choice C reason: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is the most common cause of urinary symptoms in older men. It involves non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, which compresses the urethra and impairs urine flow. Symptoms include frequency, hesitancy, weak stream, and incomplete emptying—all present in this case.
Choice D reason: Benign prostatic hypoplasia refers to underdevelopment of the prostate, which is rare and not associated with obstructive urinary symptoms. It does not fit the clinical presentation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Absence of asymmetry reduces suspicion for melanoma. Malignant lesions are often asymmetric, meaning one half does not match the other. A symmetric mole is less concerning.
Choice B reason: A regular border is typical of benign lesions. Irregular, notched, or poorly defined borders raise concern for malignancy. Since the border is not irregular, this feature does not support melanoma.
Choice C reason: Color variation, especially with blue, black, or multiple tones within a single lesion, is a hallmark of malignant melanoma. Uneven pigmentation suggests abnormal melanocyte activity and warrants further evaluation.
Choice D reason: A diameter of 1 cm is borderline. Lesions larger than 6 mm (about the size of a pencil eraser) are considered suspicious, but size alone is not diagnostic. Color variation is more specific in this context.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Celiac disease can cause iron deficiency anemia due to malabsorption, but it is less likely to present with overt gastrointestinal bleeding, especially in older adults. While it should be considered in chronic anemia, it is not the most likely cause in this context.
Choice B reason: Malignancy, particularly colorectal cancer, is a leading cause of iron deficiency anemia and gastrointestinal bleeding in men over 50. Occult or overt bleeding from a tumor can lead to chronic iron loss, and this presentation warrants urgent investigation for gastrointestinal malignancy.
Choice C reason: Parasitic infestation is a more common cause of iron deficiency anemia in children or individuals in endemic areas. It is less likely to be the cause in an older adult in a non-endemic setting, especially when gastrointestinal bleeding is present.
Choice D reason: Increased systemic requirements for iron are typically seen in growth phases, pregnancy, or chronic blood loss. In older men, this is not a common cause of iron deficiency anemia and does not explain gastrointestinal bleeding.
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