A student in a psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner program is learning to assess schizophrenia. She administers the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) to a fellow student, who scores 30. What does this score indicate?
Severe schizophrenia
No mental illness
Mild schizophrenia
Moderate schizophrenia
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Severe schizophrenia typically corresponds to PANSS scores well above 75. A score of 30 is far below this threshold and does not reflect severe symptomatology.
Choice B reason: The PANSS includes 30 items, each rated from 1 (absent) to 7 (extreme). A total score of 30 indicates that all symptoms are rated as absent, suggesting no current signs of schizophrenia or other psychotic disorders.
Choice C reason: Mild schizophrenia would result in a PANSS score higher than 30, typically in the range of 40–60, depending on symptom severity and distribution across domains.
Choice D reason: Moderate schizophrenia is associated with scores ranging from approximately 60–75. A score of 30 does not meet this threshold and indicates no clinically significant symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is confirmed when polysomnography reveals at least 5 episodes of apnea or hypopnea per hour of sleep in the presence of symptoms such as snoring, gasping, or daytime sleepiness. This threshold is consistent with clinical guidelines and reflects mild OSA.
Choice B reason: While 15 or more episodes per hour indicate moderate to severe OSA, the minimum diagnostic threshold is 5 events per hour with associated symptoms. Therefore, this choice is overly restrictive and not the best initial diagnostic criterion.
Choice C reason: Polysomnography is the gold standard for diagnosing OSA. Clinical symptoms alone are insufficient for a definitive diagnosis, especially when treatment decisions depend on severity classification.
Choice D reason: Resolution of apneas/hypopneas with CPAP confirms treatment efficacy but does not establish the initial diagnosis. This finding is relevant after diagnosis and during titration studies, not for confirming OSA.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Acanthosis nigricans is characterized by hyperpigmented, velvety plaques typically found on the neck, axillae, and other skin folds. It is strongly associated with insulin resistance and is common in individuals with obesity and type 2 diabetes.
Choice B reason: Diabetic dermopathy presents as small, round or oval, brownish atrophic patches usually on the shins. It does not involve the neck or axilla and lacks the velvety texture seen in acanthosis nigricans.
Choice C reason: Scleroderma diabeticorum involves thickening and hardening of the skin, usually on the upper back and neck, but it is less common and lacks the characteristic velvety hyperpigmentation.
Choice D reason: Necrobiosis lipoidica typically affects the lower legs and presents as yellow-brown plaques with telangiectasia and central atrophy. It is not associated with the axilla or neck and does not have a velvety appearance.
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