A 66-year-old female patient in septic shock has received fluid resuscitation, but their mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 52 mmHg. The nurse anticipates the administration of which one of the following?
Nitroglycerine (Tridil).
Atenolol (Tenormin).
Dobutamine (Dobutrex).
Norepinephrine (Levophed).
The Correct Answer is D
Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication commonly used in the management of septic shock. It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor to increase systemic vascular resistance and improve blood pressure. By constricting blood vessels, norepinephrine helps restore tissue perfusion and improve organ function.
A. Nitroglycerine (Tridil) in (option A) is incorrect because: Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator and would further lower blood pressure. It is not suitable for a patient with septic shock who already has low blood pressure.
B. Atenolol (Tenormin) in (option B) is incorrect because: Atenolol is a beta-blocker and would further decrease heart rate and blood pressure. It is not appropriate for a patient in septic shock who requires intervention to increase blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) in (option C) is incorrect because: Dobutamine is an inotropic medication used to increase cardiac output. While it can be helpful in certain types of shock, such as cardiogenic shock, it is not the first-line choice for septic shock when there is inadequate blood pressure response.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Hemorrhagic shock is characterized by severe blood loss, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion and hypovolemia. The primary goal in the initial management of hemorrhagic shock is to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion. Administering intravenous fluids, such as normal saline solution, is a critical intervention to address hypovolemia and improve blood pressure.
A. Give Plasmanate 1 unit now in (option A) is incorrect because: Plasmanate is a plasma-derived product used to replace coagulation factors. While it may be necessary to address coagulation abnormalities, administering intravenous fluids to restore volume takes priority over specific blood products.
B. Prepare for endotracheal intubation in (option B) is incorrect because Endotracheal intubation may be required in cases of impending respiratory failure or compromised airway, but it should not be the first action in addressing hypovolemic shock.
D. Type and crossmatch for 4 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) in (option D) is incorrect because transferring packed red blood cells is an important intervention to address blood loss and improve oxygen-carrying capacity. However, before administering blood products, it is crucial to stabilize the patient's hemodynamics through fluid resuscitation.
Therefore, in a patient with hemorrhagic shock, the nurse's first priority among the given options is to give normal saline solution of 250 mL/hr to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.

Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The QTc (corrected QT) interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to depolarize and repolarize during a cardiac cycle. It is corrected for heart rate (HR) to account for variations in the cardiac cycle length.
The normal range for the QTc interval varies depending on the calculation method used but generally falls within 0.36 to 0.44 seconds. In the given options, the range of 0.33 to 0.47 seconds for the QTc interval is wider than the normal range, suggesting a prolonged QTc interval, which can be indicative of a potential risk for arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and torsades de pointes.
B. QT interval that varies with HR in (option B) is normal because The QT interval alone can vary with heart rate, and this is considered a normal physiological adaptation.
C. QRS interval <0.12 seconds in (option C) is normal because The QRS interval represents the time it takes for ventricular depolarization and is normally less than 0.12 seconds.
D. PR interval 0.12 to 0.24 seconds in (option D) is normal because The PR interval represents the time it takes for atrial depolarization and conduction through the AV node. The normal range is typically 0.12 to 0.20 seconds.

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
