A 70 year old female is diagnosed with a hip fracture related to osteoporosis. What is the most likely contribution to this condition?
increased androgen levels
decreased estrogen levels
strenuous exercise
excessive dietary calcium
The Correct Answer is B
A. Increased androgen levels: Androgens have a protective effect on bone density by contributing to bone formation and maintenance. Elevated androgen levels would not promote bone loss and are not associated with osteoporosis-related fractures.
B. Decreased estrogen levels: Estrogen plays a critical role in inhibiting bone resorption and maintaining bone density. After menopause, reduced estrogen levels lead to increased osteoclast activity and accelerated bone loss. This hormonal change is a major contributing factor to osteoporosis and fracture risk.
C. Strenuous exercise: Weight-bearing and resistance exercises generally help strengthen bones and improve bone mineral density. While excessive or improper exercise may cause injury, it does not cause osteoporosis. Physical activity is usually protective rather than harmful to bone health.
D. Excessive dietary calcium: High calcium intake alone does not lead to osteoporosis and is often recommended to support bone health. Calcium supports bone mineralization when balanced with vitamin D and hormonal regulation. It would not contribute to bone fragility or fractures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Cardiac output has fallen below normal levels: While reduced cardiac output can contribute to symptoms in heart failure, angina pectoris is specifically related to myocardial ischemia rather than a global decrease in cardiac output. Low output alone does not explain exertional chest pain.
B. Stimulation of the vagus nerve: Vagal stimulation can affect heart rate and cause nausea or bradycardia, but it is not the underlying mechanism of angina. Anginal pain results from ischemia, not neural stimulation alone.
C. The myocardium has exceeded the upper limits: The pain of angina pectoris is not simply about the heart working "harder" or reaching an "upper limit" of performance, but rather about the chemical and neurological signals sent by heart cells when they are deprived of oxygen due to narrowed coronary arteries.
D. The myocardial oxygen supply has fallen below demand: Angina pectoris occurs when the oxygen demand of the myocardium exceeds the oxygen supplied via coronary blood flow. This imbalance typically happens during exertion, stress, or other conditions that increase cardiac workload, leading to transient ischemia and chest pain.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ulcerative colitis: Ulcerative colitis is characterized by continuous inflammation of the colon and rectum, leading to recurrent abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools. These classic symptoms, along with the presence of blood in the stool, strongly suggest ulcerative colitis.
B. Hiatal hernia: Hiatal hernia primarily causes gastroesophageal reflux, heartburn, and epigastric discomfort. It does not typically present with diarrhea or bloody stools, making it an unlikely cause of Jean’s symptoms.
C. Pyloric obstruction: Pyloric obstruction leads to nausea, vomiting, early satiety, and epigastric fullness due to impaired gastric emptying. Bloody diarrhea and chronic abdominal pain are not typical features.
D. Crohn’s disease: Crohn’s disease can cause abdominal pain and diarrhea but usually involves patchy inflammation throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Bloody stools are less common than in ulcerative colitis.
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