A 71-year-old White man with a history of hip fracture is diagnosed with osteoporosis. Which medication or class is considered first-line therapy for men with osteoporosis?
Bazedoxifene
Risedronate
Bisphosphonates
Denosumab
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Bazedoxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) primarily used in postmenopausal women for osteoporosis prevention and treatment. It is not approved or recommended as first-line therapy for men with osteoporosis due to its estrogen-related mechanism of action.
Choice B reason: Risedronate is a bisphosphonate and is effective in treating osteoporosis. However, it is a specific agent within the bisphosphonate class. While it may be used, the broader class of bisphosphonates is considered first-line, allowing for individualized selection among agents like alendronate, risedronate, or zoledronic acid.
Choice C reason: Bisphosphonates are the first-line therapy for osteoporosis in men. They work by inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, thereby increasing bone mineral density and reducing fracture risk. Their efficacy, safety profile, and long-term data support their use as the standard initial treatment.
Choice D reason: Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that inhibits RANKL, reducing bone resorption. It is effective in treating osteoporosis and may be used in men, especially those who cannot tolerate bisphosphonates or have contraindications. However, it is considered second-line or alternative therapy, not first-line.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Telmisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), which prevents angiotensin II from binding to its receptors but does not inhibit its formation. ARBs are less likely to cause a dry cough because they do not increase bradykinin levels.
Choice B reason: Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion. A common side effect is a persistent dry cough due to increased bradykinin levels, making it the correct answer.
Choice C reason: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle to lower blood pressure. It does not affect the renin-angiotensin system and is not associated with dry cough.
Choice D reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. It is used to manage fluid overload in heart failure and hypertension but does not act on the renin-angiotensin system or cause dry cough.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Cellulitis is a bacterial infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissues, most commonly caused by group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus and Staphylococcus aureus. It presents with warmth, erythema, swelling, and tenderness, often with systemic symptoms. The infection typically enters through breaks in the skin.
Choice B reason: This describes acne or folliculitis, which involves inflammation of pilosebaceous units. Cellulitis affects deeper layers of the skin and is not limited to hair follicles.
Choice C reason: This describes the pathogenesis of psoriasis, a chronic inflammatory skin condition. Psoriasis involves keratinocyte hyperproliferation, not infection.
Choice D reason: Psychological stress and environmental allergens may exacerbate certain dermatologic conditions like eczema or urticaria, but they are not causative factors in cellulitis, which is infectious in origin.
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