A 21-year-old female-to-male transitioning client wishes to begin treatment with hormone therapy. Which of the following would be appropriate to suppress female hormones?
Leuprolide (Lupron)
Spironolactone
Estrogen
Testosterone
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Leuprolide is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist that initially stimulates and then suppresses the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), leading to decreased estrogen production from the ovaries. It is commonly used in transgender men to suppress endogenous female hormone production prior to or alongside testosterone therapy. This suppression helps reduce menstruation and estrogen-driven secondary sex characteristics, facilitating masculinization.
Choice B reason: Spironolactone is primarily used in male-to-female (MTF) transitions to block androgen receptors and reduce testosterone effects. It is not used to suppress estrogen in female-to-male (FTM) transitions and would not be appropriate for this client.
Choice C reason: Estrogen is a feminizing hormone and would counteract the goals of masculinization in a female-to-male transition. Administering estrogen would increase female secondary sex characteristics, which is the opposite of the desired effect.
Choice D reason: Testosterone is the primary hormone used to induce masculinization in female-to-male transitions. However, it does not suppress endogenous estrogen production directly. While it promotes male secondary sex characteristics, it is often combined with agents like GnRH agonists (e.g., Leuprolide) to effectively suppress female hormone activity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Blurred vision is the hallmark early symptom of cataract formation. It results from the clouding of the lens, which scatters light and reduces visual clarity. Patients often describe difficulty reading, glare sensitivity, and needing more light for tasks.
Choice B reason: Headache is not a typical symptom of cataracts. It may occur with other ocular conditions like glaucoma or refractive errors but is not a primary indicator of lens opacity.
Choice C reason: Floaters are associated with vitreous degeneration or retinal detachment, not cataracts. They appear as spots or threads in the visual field and are unrelated to lens changes.
Choice D reason: Eye strain may occur with uncorrected refractive errors or prolonged screen use but is not a defining feature of cataracts. It lacks the specificity and diagnostic relevance of blurred vision.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Electroconvulsive therapy is typically reserved for severe depression, catatonia, or treatment-resistant mood disorders. It is not first-line for acute psychosis, especially in a young adult with paranoid delusions.
Choice B reason: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and panic disorders. It is not appropriate for treating psychosis and may worsen disinhibition or aggression in psychotic patients.
Choice C reason: Fluoxetine is an SSRI used for depression and anxiety disorders. It does not address the core symptoms of schizophrenia or acute psychosis, such as delusions and paranoia.
Choice D reason: Ziprasidone is an atypical antipsychotic effective in treating schizophrenia and acute psychotic episodes. It targets dopamine and serotonin receptors, helping to reduce delusions, hallucinations, and agitation. It is appropriate for managing the patient’s paranoid psychosis.
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