A client diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed thought process related to biochemical alterations. Based on this diagnosis, which outcome would be appropriate?

Aripiprazole is a second-generation antipsychotic used in the management of acute mania in bipolar I disorder. It acts as a partial agonist at dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT1A receptors, and antagonist at 5-HT2A receptors. Its pharmacologic profile allows it to stabilize mood and reduce excitability without excessive sedation. When administered intramuscularly in acute settings, it rapidly targets agitation and hyperactivity, making it suitable for de-escalation. Unlike sedatives, its goal is behavioral control rather than sedation, and it does not immediately equalize mood swings.

Rationale for correct answer

2. Aripiprazole’s primary effect in acute mania is reducing excitability and agitation. Its dopaminergic modulation calms hyperactive behavior without causing oversedation, allowing for safer interaction and stabilization.

Rationale for incorrect answers

1. Sedation is not the therapeutic goal of aripiprazole. While some calming may occur, excessive sedation suggests overmedication or use of a different pharmacologic class like benzodiazepines.

3. Although aripiprazole can reduce psychotic symptoms over time, its immediate IM use in acute mania targets agitation and excitability first. Psychotic symptom relief is not the primary indicator of short-term effectiveness.

4. Mood stabilization is a long-term goal in bipolar management. Acute IM administration does not equalize mood swings immediately; it primarily addresses behavioral dysregulation.

Take Home Points

• Aripiprazole IM is used for rapid control of agitation and excitability in acute manic episodes.
• Sedation is not the intended outcome; behavioral calming without oversedation is preferred.
• Psychotic symptom relief and mood stabilization are longer-term therapeutic goals.
• In acute psychiatric emergencies, medication effectiveness is judged by reduction in dangerous or disruptive behaviors.

Manic episodes in bipolar I disorder are characterized by elevated mood, hyperactivity, and impaired judgment, often resulting in risk-taking behaviors and physical exhaustion. Clients may exhibit pressured speech, pacing, and agitation, which significantly increase the risk of injury due to falls, collisions, or physical depletion. The priority in acute mania is to ensure safety, as the combination of psychomotor agitation and poor insight can lead to accidental harm or collapse from exhaustion. Nutritional and sleep deficits are important but secondary to immediate physical risk.

Rationale for correct answer

2. Margaret’s extreme hyperactivity and agitation place her at high risk for physical harm. Her inability to rest, combined with poor nutritional intake, increases the likelihood of injury from collapse, falls, or overexertion.

Rationale for incorrect answers

1. While Margaret’s poor intake is concerning, nutrition is not the most immediate threat. The physical consequences of hyperactivity, such as collapse or injury, take precedence in acute care.

3. Sleep disturbance is a hallmark of mania, but agitation and hyperactivity pose more immediate safety risks. Sleep can be addressed once Margaret is stabilized and safe.

4. Denial of illness is common in bipolar disorder, but coping strategies are not the priority during acute manic episodes. Immediate physiological safety concerns override psychosocial considerations.

Take Home Points

• In acute mania, physical safety risks due to hyperactivity and exhaustion are the top nursing priority.
• Nutritional and sleep deficits are important but secondary to injury prevention during manic episodes.
• Bipolar clients often lack insight into their condition, requiring structured interventions to ensure safety.
• Nursing diagnoses must prioritize physiological needs first, especially when behaviors threaten immediate harm.