A client has thick, white vaginal discharge and itching. What diagnosis would the nurse expect for this client?
Trichomoniasis
Bacterial Vaginosis
Chlamydia
Candidiasis
The Correct Answer is D
Vulvovaginal candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by an overgrowth of Candida albicans within the vaginal mucosa. It often results from a disruption in the lactobacillus-dominant flora, leading to inflammatory changes and intense pruritus. Diagnosis is confirmed by visualizing pseudohyphae on a potassium hydroxide wet mount.
A. Trichomoniasis: This protozoan infection typically presents with a malodorous, thin, and frothy green-yellow discharge rather than thick white secretions. Patients often exhibit "strawberry cervix" due to punctate hemorrhages on the vaginal walls. It is a sexually transmitted infection requiring metronidazole for both partners.
B. Bacterial Vaginosis: BV is characterized by a "fishy" odor and a thin, homogeneous gray discharge that coats the vaginal vault. It lacks the intense itching and inflammatory redness associated with fungal overgrowth. The presence of clue cells under microscopy is the definitive diagnostic marker for this condition.
C. Chlamydia: This bacterial infection is frequently asymptomatic but may cause a mucopurulent cervicitis or post-coital bleeding. It does not typically produce the curd-like, white discharge seen in yeast infections. If left untreated, it can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and subsequent tubal infertility.
D. Candidiasis: The classic presentation of a yeast infection involves a "cottage cheese" consistency discharge and significant vulvar erythema. Pregnancy increases vaginal glycogen levels, which provides an ideal environment for fungal proliferation. This is the most likely diagnosis based on the pruritic nature of the symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Magnesium toxicity occurs when serum levels exceed the therapeutic range (4-7 mEq/L), leading to neuromuscular blockade and respiratory depression. The excess magnesium antagonizes calcium at the presynaptic nerve terminals, inhibiting acetylcholine release. Immediate reversal is required to restore deep tendon reflexes and prevent cardiac arrest.
A. Calcium gluconate: Calcium serves as a direct physiological antagonist to magnesium at the neuromuscular junction. Intravenous administration of 10% calcium gluconate rapidly displaces magnesium, reversing respiratory depression and cardiac dysrhythmias. It is the mandatory first-line antidote for magnesium-induced toxicity.
B. Sodium bicarbonate: This alkalizing agent is primarily used to treat metabolic acidosis or specific tricyclic antidepressant overdoses. It does not possess antagonistic properties against magnesium ions. Using it for magnesium toxicity would not address the underlying respiratory failure or muscular paralysis.
C. Naloxone: Naloxone is a competitive opioid antagonist used to reverse central nervous system depression caused by narcotics like morphine or fentanyl. It has no effect on magnesium-induced CNS depression. It targets mu-opioid receptors, which are not involved in the pathophysiology of hypermagnesemia.
D. Potassium chloride: Administering potassium is used to treat hypokalemia but is not indicated for magnesium overdose. In fact, magnesium and potassium levels are often linked, and hyperkalemia could potentially worsen cardiac instability. It provides no antidotal benefit for reversing magnesium's toxic effects.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Epidural anesthesia induces a sympathetic blockade, causing systemic vasodilation and decreased venous return. This often results in maternal hypotension, which compromises uteroplacental blood flow and can lead to fetal bradycardia. Immediate hemodynamic stabilization is required to maintain placental perfusion and maternal consciousness.
A. Decreased fluids: Reducing fluid intake is contraindicated as the client requires volume expansion to counteract the vasodilation caused by the anesthetic. Most protocols involve a "fluid bolus" of 500 to 1000 mL of crystalloids prior to or during placement. Lowering fluids would worsen the hypotensive state.
B. Ambulate: Walking is strictly prohibited after an epidural due to motor blockade and the risk of orthostatic collapse. The client lacks the proprioception and muscle strength to support their weight safely. Ambulation would exacerbate the drop in cardiac output and blood pressure.
C. Reposition to side: Turning the client to a lateral position relieves aortocaval compression, which increases venous return and cardiac output. This simple mechanical intervention is the priority step to restore maternal blood pressure. It maximizes the available blood volume for systemic circulation.
D. Increase stimulation: Sensory or environmental stimulation does not address the underlying physiological cause of the blood pressure drop. Hypotension following regional anesthesia is a vascular and autonomic event rather than a lack of maternal alertness. It requires hemodynamic interventions rather than behavioral ones.
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