A client is hospitalized following a suicide attempt after breaking up with her significant other.
The client says to the nurse, "When I get out of here, I'm going to try this again, and next time I'll get it right?" Which is the best response by the nurse?
"You are safe here. We will make sure nothing happens to you."
"You're just lucky your roommate came home to help you when she did."
"What exactly do you plan to do?"
"I don't understand. You have so much to live for."
The Correct Answer is C
A. While providing reassurance is important, this response does not directly address the client's statement about future attempts.
B. This response may minimize the seriousness of the client's statement and is not the best way to address the situation.
C. This response directly addresses the client's statement, seeking clarification on her plans. It is important to assess the level of risk and ensure the client's safety.
D. While expressing empathy and highlighting the client's positive qualities can be helpful, it may not directly address the immediate concern of the client's statement about future attempts.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While understanding precipitating factors is important, it is not the immediate priority when the client is actively experiencing hallucinations.
B. Distracting the client may not address the underlying cause of the hallucinations, which should be the priority.
C. Determining the content of the hallucinations can provide important information for assessment and intervention.
D. Dismissing the client's experience can be alienating and unhelpful.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms (e.g., apathy, poverty of thought) as second-generation antipsychotics.
B. Olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic known to be effective in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
C. Diphenhydramine is not typically used as a primary treatment for schizophrenia.
D. Chlorpromazine is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms as second-generation antipsychotics.
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