A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder with psychotic features hears voices commanding self harm. The client refuses to commit to developing a plan for safety. What should be the nurse's priority intervention at this time?
Placing the client on one-on-one observation while monitoring for suicidal ideations
Conducting 15minute checks to ensure safety
Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings related to suicide
Completing a room search to ensure there are no harmful objects available to the client.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Placing the client on one-on-one observation while monitoring for suicidal ideations Given that the client is experiencing auditory hallucinations commanding self harm and is refusing to commit to a safety plan, one-on-one observation is necessary to ensure the client's safety. This
intervention provides constant monitoring and allows for immediate intervention if self harm is attempted.
B. Conducting 15minute checks to ensure safety While conducting regular safety checks is
important, in this case, more continuous monitoring is required due to the severity of the client's symptoms.
C. Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings related to suicide While encouraging communication is essential, in this urgent situation, immediate safety measures take precedence.
D. Completing a room search to ensure there are no harmful objects available to the client
Ensuring the environment is safe is important, but it should be done in conjunction with one-on- one observation to provide the highest level of safety for the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Increasing aggression may be an indication for a PRN medication, but benztropine specifically targets extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
B. Elevated blood pressure is not a direct indication for benztropine; it is used to address EPS.
C. Complaints of dizziness may not be directly related to EPS, which is the target of benztropine.
D. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct. These symptoms are indicative of opioid withdrawal. Opioid withdrawal symptoms include sweating (diaphoresis), goosebumps (piloerection), tremors, irritability, insomnia, and gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea and vomiting.
B) Incorrect. These symptoms are more indicative of withdrawal from substances like alcohol or benzodiazepines, rather than opioids.
C) Incorrect. These symptoms are not specific to opioid withdrawal and may be seen in various conditions.
D) Incorrect. This cluster of symptoms is not characteristic of opioid withdrawal.
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