A client is reporting pain in her casted leg. The nurse has administered analgesics and elevated the limb. Thirty minutes after administering the analgesics. the client states the pain is unrelieved. The nurse is unable to palpate the client's dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulse and the client's foot is pale. The nurse suspects compartment syndrome. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Promptly inform the primary provider.

Reassess the client's neurovascular status in 15 minutes.

Warm the client's foot and determine whether circulation improves.

Reposition the client with the affected foot dependent.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Explanation:
A. Promptly inform the primary provider:
Explanation: Compartment syndrome is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. If a nurse suspects compartment syndrome due to symptoms like severe unrelieved pain, absent pulses, and pale extremities, the most appropriate action is to promptly inform the primary healthcare provider. The provider can assess the situation, order necessary diagnostic tests, and potentially arrange for emergent interventions like fasciotomy to relieve compartment pressure.

B. Reassess the client's neurovascular status in 15 minutes:
Explanation: Waiting for 15 minutes to reassess the client's neurovascular status is not appropriate in this situation. Compartment syndrome can progress rapidly, leading to irreversible tissue damage within a short time frame. Delaying assessment and intervention can result in significant complications.

C. Warm the client's foot and determine whether circulation improves:
Explanation: Warming the foot is not appropriate in this context. Compartment syndrome is caused by increased pressure within the muscle compartment, leading to compromised circulation. Warming the foot will not address the underlying issue of elevated compartment pressure and can potentially worsen the condition by dilating blood vessels and increasing pressure further.

D. Reposition the client with the affected foot dependent:
Explanation: Repositioning the client with the affected foot dependent is contraindicated in compartment syndrome. Elevating the limb can worsen the condition by further restricting blood flow. The limb should be kept at or slightly below the level of the heart to maintain adequate perfusion until medical intervention can be initiated.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The longer the joint is displaced, the more difficult it is to get it back in place:
This statement is correct. Prompt reduction of a dislocated joint is important because the longer the joint remains out of place, the more difficult it becomes to realign it. Delayed reduction can lead to complications and makes the process more challenging for healthcare providers.

B. Avascular necrosis may develop at the site if it is not promptly resolved:
Avascular necrosis is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a lack of blood supply. While it is a potential complication of hip dislocation, it is not the immediate rationale for considering hip dislocation a medical emergency. The urgency primarily lies in the difficulty of reducing the dislocation and preventing further complications.

C. The client's pain will increase until the joint is realigned:
This statement is partially correct. While it is true that dislocated joints are extremely painful, the urgency in reducing the dislocation is not solely based on pain management. It is essential to prevent complications, restore joint function, and minimize long-term damage to the affected area.

D. Dislocation can become permanent if the process of bone remodeling begins:
This statement is accurate. If a dislocated joint is not promptly reduced, the surrounding tissues may undergo changes, and the process of bone remodeling can begin. This can lead to the dislocation becoming more difficult or even impossible to reduce, resulting in a permanent dislocation. Early intervention is essential to prevent this outcome.

A. "You will need to lie flat for 4 hours following the test." B. "You will need to empty your bladder before the test." C. "You will need to have an IV inserted for the IV dye needed for the scan." D. "You will need to fast for 12 hours before the test."

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. There is no need for the client to lie flat for an extended period after a DEXA scan. The procedure is non-invasive and does not require immobilization.

B. Emptying the bladder before the test is essential to ensure a clear and accurate scan of the pelvis and lower spine. A full bladder might obstruct the view and affect the accuracy of the results.

C. DEXA scans do not typically require the use of IV dye. It is a simple X-ray procedure that measures bone density, and no contrast material is usually needed.

D. Fasting is not necessary for a DEXA scan. The procedure does not involve ingesting or injecting any substances that require fasting.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An emergency department client is diagnosed with a hip dislocation. The client's family is relieved that the client has not suffered a hip fracture, but the nurse explains that this is still considered to be a medical emergency. What is the rationale for the nurse's statement?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) to screen for osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse understands that certain patients are more susceptible to pressure ulcer development. Which clients should the nurse identify as being at an increased risk for this health problem? Select all that apply.

A nurse notes increasing edema in the calf of a client who has multiple fractures of the leg. The nurse should recognize that increasing edema is a manifestation of which of the following complications?

A nurse is teaching a client about preventing osteoporosis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A nurse is to administer one 1L bag of normal saline to a client over 5 hours. At what rate should the nurse program the pump in milliliters per hour? (Round to the whole number. Assume no interruptions.)

A nurse is teaching a group of clients about osteoarthritis. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is at risk for skin breakdown. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use to help maintain the integrity of the client's skin?

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with an arterial insufficiency ulcer. The nurse should plan interventions to address which priority issue?