A client presents with a sudden onset of a severe headache, confusion, and facial drooping.
The nurse is reviewing the Medication Administration Record and potential provider orders. Which potential condition is the client most likely experiencing?
Migraine Headache.
Stroke.
Trigeminal Neuralgia.
Meningitis.
The Correct Answer is B
This scenario requires differentiating between various neurological conditions based on the sudden onset of focal deficits and altered mental status. Recognizing the hallmarks of acute ischemia or hemorrhage is vital for ensuring the patient receives rapid, time sensitive reperfusion therapies.
Choice A rationale
Migraines typically present with unilateral throbbing pain, photophobia, and phonophobia, often preceded by an aura. While they can be severe, they do not usually cause acute facial drooping or the profound confusion associated with a cerebrovascular accident.
Choice B rationale
A stroke involves a sudden interruption of blood flow to the brain, causing rapid onset focal neurological deficits. Facial drooping, confusion, and severe headache are classic signs of either ischemic or hemorrhagic events requiring immediate emergency diagnostic imaging.
Choice C rationale
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, brief, and excruciating paroxysmal facial pain along the branches of the fifth cranial nerve. It does not cause confusion, facial drooping, or a generalized severe headache, as it is a sensory nerve disorder.
Choice D rationale
Meningitis involves inflammation of the meninges, typically presenting with fever, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia. While confusion and headache occur, the onset is usually more gradual than a stroke and does not typically include acute focal facial drooping.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This scenario requires the application of therapeutic communication principles, specifically validation. Validating feelings involves acknowledging the client's emotional state without dismissing it. Nurses must distinguish between open-ended exploration, false reassurance, and self-disclosure to effectively support patients experiencing acute psychological distress.
Choice A rationale
Validation occurs when the nurse acknowledges the client's subjective experience. Myocardial infarction triggers significant anxiety regarding mortality. Acknowledging that the situation is frightening provides empathy and validates the client's feelings without being dismissive or providing false reassurance.
Choice B rationale
Asking why is often perceived as accusatory and may put the client on the defensive. It requires the client to analyze their emotions logically during a crisis, which can block further therapeutic communication and effective emotional expression.
Choice C rationale
This statement provides false reassurance. In a clinical setting, nurses cannot guarantee specific outcomes. This approach shuts down the client's expression of fear by shifting the focus to clinical actions rather than acknowledging the emotional reality.
Choice D rationale
This is an example of self-disclosure. By focusing on the nurse's own hypothetical feelings, the conversation shifts away from the client. Therapeutic communication must remain client-centered rather than focusing on the nurse's personal perspectives or reactions.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C","dropdown-group-3":"A"}
Explanation
The nurse must identify the client's highest risk factors for perioperative complications. While the client is currently in the preoperative area for a hip arthroplasty due to osteoarthritis, their specific medical history places them at an elevated priority for the development of a Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Total hip arthroplasty is a high-risk procedure for venous thromboembolism (VTE), and this client's history of recurring clots significantly increases the likelihood of a repeat event during or after surgery.
Rationales:
Deep vein thrombosis: This is the priority condition for monitoring and prophylaxis in this scenario. The client has a documented history of DVT on two separate occasions. Surgery, particularly orthopedic surgery on the lower extremities, causes venous stasis and vessel injury, which combined with the client's history, creates a high-risk profile for VTE.
History of DVT: This is a direct indicator of the client's predisposition to venous clotting. Previous episodes of DVT are the strongest predictor for future occurrences, especially when undergoing a major surgery like a total hip arthroplasty that involves significant immobility.
History of multiple DVTs: The fact that the client has a history of two separate DVTs reinforces the priority of this condition. It suggests a chronic or recurring susceptibility to clotting that requires aggressive perioperative management, such as mechanical prophylaxis (sequential compression devices) and pharmacological anticoagulation.
Pulmonary embolus: While a pulmonary embolus is a life-threatening complication of DVT, there is no evidence in the notes (such as acute chest pain or shortness of breath) to suggest it is currently occurring. It is a potential consequence rather than a condition evidenced by the current preoperative notes.
Osteoarthritis flare: While the client has painful hip osteoarthritis, this is the reason for the surgery, not a priority complication to be identified from the medical history for perioperative safety.
GERD exacerbation: The client's GERD is controlled with an antacid PRN. While important for preoperative fasting (NPO) considerations, it is not a priority condition compared to the risk of vascular complications like DVT.
Chest pain and Dyspnea: These are symptoms of an active pulmonary embolism or cardiac event. Neither is mentioned in the 0630 nurses' notes, so they cannot serve as evidence for the client's current status.
Recent surgery: The client is currently preparing for surgery. While past surgeries are noted, "recent surgery" typically refers to the immediate postoperative period as a risk factor, rather than the historical hysterectomy or appendectomy.
Smoking history: While a 52-pack-year history is significant for respiratory and vascular health, the client quit 2 years ago. While it contributes to general risk, it is less specific to the immediate priority of DVT than the direct history of having had multiple clots.
Immobility risk: The client's BMI of 30.1 and the nature of hip surgery contribute to immobility, which is a risk factor. However, the history of previous DVTs is a more specific piece of "evidence" from the notes that points to the priority condition of recurrent DVT.
Anticoagulant use: The notes mention hypertension and cholesterol meds but do not explicitly list current anticoagulant use. If they were on them, it would be a management factor, but it is not listed as evidence in the provided note.
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