A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage."
"DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen."
"DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency."
"DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage": This statement is not accurate. While heparin may be used in the treatment of DIC, it is not a lifelong therapy, and the approach to treatment depends on the underlying cause.
B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen": This is the correct answer. DIC is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to the formation of microthrombi throughout the body. Abnormal coagulation involves the consumption of clotting factors, including fibrinogen.
C. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency": This statement is not accurate. DIC is not a genetic disorder, and it is not primarily related to vitamin K deficiency. It is an acquired condition often associated with severe infections, sepsis, trauma, or other critical illnesses.
D. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count": This statement is not accurate. In DIC, there is often a decrease in platelet count due to consumption and activation of platelets in the widespread formation of microthrombi.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Providing immediate rest for the client: Rest is important, but in the context of an acute asthma exacerbation, addressing the underlying respiratory distress is the priority.
B. Administering a nebulized beta-adrenergic agonist: This is the correct answer. Beta-adrenergic agonists, such as albuterol, are bronchodilators that help relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. Administering a nebulized beta-adrenergic agonist is a key intervention during an acute asthma exacerbation to alleviate symptoms and improve respiratory function.
C. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's: While positioning can assist with respiratory effort, administering a bronchodilator is a more direct and immediate intervention to relieve airway obstruction.
D. Initiating oxygen therapy: While oxygen therapy may be necessary, addressing bronchoconstriction with a beta-adrenergic agonist is the primary intervention during an acute asthma exacerbation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Respiratory alkalosis: Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a decrease in carbonic acid (CO2) due to hyperventilation, leading to an increased pH. Shallow respirations would not typically cause respiratory alkalosis.
B. Respiratory acidosis: This is the correct answer. Shallow respirations result in inadequate elimination of CO2, leading to an excess of carbonic acid and the development of respiratory acidosis.
C. Metabolic acidosis: Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a decrease in bicarbonate (HCO3-), not carbonic acid (CO2). Shallow respirations would not directly contribute to metabolic acidosis.
D. Metabolic alkalosis: Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by an increase in bicarbonate (HCO3-). Shallow respirations would not typically cause metabolic alkalosis.
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