A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

"DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage."

"DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen."

"DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency."

"DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage": This statement is not accurate. While heparin may be used in the treatment of DIC, it is not a lifelong therapy, and the approach to treatment depends on the underlying cause.

B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen": This is the correct answer. DIC is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to the formation of microthrombi throughout the body. Abnormal coagulation involves the consumption of clotting factors, including fibrinogen.

C. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency": This statement is not accurate. DIC is not a genetic disorder, and it is not primarily related to vitamin K deficiency. It is an acquired condition often associated with severe infections, sepsis, trauma, or other critical illnesses.

D. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count": This statement is not accurate. In DIC, there is often a decrease in platelet count due to consumption and activation of platelets in the widespread formation of microthrombi.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Fatigue: Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) can lead to fatigue and weakness. Potassium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, and a deficiency can result in muscle weakness and decreased energy levels.

B. Pitting edema: Pitting edema is more commonly associated with fluid retention, which can occur in heart failure. Hypokalemia is not typically a direct cause of pitting edema.

C. Dyspnea: Dyspnea (shortness of breath) is a symptom commonly associated with heart failure, and while potassium imbalance can affect cardiac function, it is not a specific manifestation of hypokalemia.

D. Oliguria: Oliguria (decreased urine output) is not a typical manifestation of hypokalemia. However, it can be associated with heart failure and other renal conditions.

A. Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12. B. Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs. C. Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction. D. Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to the absorption of vitamin B12. It primarily involves a decrease in the production of blood cells by the bone marrow.

B. Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs: This is the correct information. Aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of blood cells, including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.

C. Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not associated with an increased rate of RBC destruction. Instead, it is characterized by a reduction in the number of blood cells produced by the bone marrow.

D. Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to a decreased intake of iron. It is primarily a disorder of bone marrow function leading to insufficient production of blood cells.

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A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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