A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

"DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage."

"DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen."

"DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency."

"DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage": This statement is not accurate. While heparin may be used in the treatment of DIC, it is not a lifelong therapy, and the approach to treatment depends on the underlying cause.

B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen": This is the correct answer. DIC is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to the formation of microthrombi throughout the body. Abnormal coagulation involves the consumption of clotting factors, including fibrinogen.

C. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency": This statement is not accurate. DIC is not a genetic disorder, and it is not primarily related to vitamin K deficiency. It is an acquired condition often associated with severe infections, sepsis, trauma, or other critical illnesses.

D. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count": This statement is not accurate. In DIC, there is often a decrease in platelet count due to consumption and activation of platelets in the widespread formation of microthrombi.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. The laboratory values are the same as the previous test values: This is unlikely in DIC. In an acute episode of DIC, there is usually a significant disturbance in coagulation values due to the consumption of clotting factors and the development of clotting abnormalities.

B. The laboratory values are within the expected reference range: In DIC, the coagulation values are usually not within the expected reference range. Instead, they are prolonged, reflecting the imbalance in the coagulation system.

C. The laboratory values are prolonged: This is the correct answer. In DIC, the PT, aPTT, and INR are prolonged because the coagulation factors are being consumed in the process of widespread clot formation.

D. The laboratory values are decreased: This is not typical for DIC. In DIC, the issue is not a decrease in clotting factors but rather their consumption, leading to an overall imbalance in the coagulation system.

A. Dependent edema B. Jugular distention C. Nocturnal polyuria D. Frothy sputum

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Dependent edema: Dependent edema is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. In left-sided heart failure, fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to pulmonary symptoms such as cough and frothy sputum.
B. Jugular distention: Jugular distention is often associated with right-sided heart failure due to impaired blood flow from the right atrium into the right ventricle. It is less likely to be prominent in left-sided heart failure.
C. Nocturnal polyuria: Nocturnal polyuria (increased urination at night) is a common symptom of heart failure, but it is not specific to left-sided heart failure. It can be seen in both left- and right-sided heart failure.
D. Frothy sputum: This is the correct answer. Left-sided heart failure can lead to pulmonary congestion, resulting in the accumulation of fluid in the lungs. Frothy, pink-tinged sputum is a characteristic finding in left-sided heart failure and is often associated with pulmonary edema.

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A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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