A client receiving morphine reports constipation to the nurse. What is the likely explanation for this symptom?
It indicates that the current dose is too low.
It is a sign that the medication is not working.
It is an adverse effect of the morphine.
It is an interaction with another medication.
The Correct Answer is C
A. It indicates that the current dose is too low: Constipation is not an indicator of inadequate analgesia. Even therapeutic doses of morphine commonly cause gastrointestinal slowing regardless of pain control.
B. It is a sign that the medication is not working: Constipation does not reflect the effectiveness of morphine for pain relief. The analgesic effect may be adequate, while opioid-induced bowel effects occur independently.
C. It is an adverse effect of the morphine: Morphine binds to mu-opioid receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, reducing peristalsis and increasing water absorption from the stool. This predictable pharmacologic effect is a common adverse reaction requiring proactive bowel management.
D. It is an interaction with another medication: While drug interactions can contribute to gastrointestinal symptoms, opioid-induced constipation is a direct pharmacologic effect of morphine itself and occurs even in the absence of other medications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "This drug should make me feel full.": Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione used to improve insulin sensitivity in type 2 diabetes. It does not act as an appetite suppressant, so expecting a feeling of fullness reflects a misunderstanding of its mechanism.
B. "This drug may cause flatulence.": While some medications for diabetes, such as alpha-glucosidase inhibitors, can cause flatulence, pioglitazone does not commonly produce this side effect. Expecting gas is not accurate for this drug.
C. "This drug can damage my liver.": Pioglitazone carries a risk of hepatotoxicity, so clients should be aware of signs of liver injury (e.g., jaundice, dark urine, fatigue). This statement demonstrates understanding of a key safety concern associated with the medication.
D. "This drug may cause weight loss.": Pioglitazone is more commonly associated with weight gain due to fluid retention rather than weight loss. Believing it promotes weight loss indicates a misconception about the drug’s effects.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
• Biguanide: Metformin belongs to the biguanide class of oral hypoglycemic agents. It lowers blood glucose by decreasing hepatic glucose production, improving insulin sensitivity, and enhancing peripheral glucose uptake.
• Type 2 diabetes mellitus: Metformin is indicated for clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. It helps control fasting and postprandial blood glucose levels, reduces hemoglobin A1c, and is often first-line therapy in overweight or insulin-resistant patients.
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