A nurse is educating a client with diabetes who has a new prescription for U-300 insulin glargine. Which instruction should the nurse provide regarding administration of this insulin?
"Take this medication every 24 hours."
"Take this medication every 12 hours."
"Take this medication every 4 hours."
"Take this medication every 8 hours."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "Take this medication every 24 hours.": U-300 insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin designed to provide steady insulin coverage over 24 hours. Administering it once daily maintains consistent blood glucose control and reduces the risk of hypoglycemia associated with peaks from shorter-acting insulins.
B. "Take this medication every 12 hours.": Administering U-300 insulin glargine every 12 hours is unnecessary and could lead to insulin stacking and hypoglycemia, as its pharmacokinetics are designed for once-daily dosing with a relatively flat action profile.
C. "Take this medication every 4 hours.": Frequent administration at 4-hour intervals is inappropriate for long-acting insulin. Doing so would significantly increase the risk of severe hypoglycemia due to overlapping insulin effects.
D. "Take this medication every 8 hours.": Dosing every 8 hours does not align with the pharmacokinetic profile of U-300 insulin glargine. More frequent dosing could cause cumulative insulin effects, increasing hypoglycemia risk without additional glycemic benefit.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Colchicine: Colchicine is an anti-inflammatory medication primarily used to treat gout and familial Mediterranean fever. It is not an opioid and does not act on opioid receptors to produce analgesia or sedation.
B. Ibuprofen: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that reduces pain, fever, and inflammation by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes. It does not bind to opioid receptors and is not classified as an opioid.
C. Fentanyl: Fentanyl is a potent synthetic opioid that binds to mu-opioid receptors in the central nervous system, producing analgesia, sedation, and euphoria. It is commonly used for severe pain management and as an adjunct in anesthesia.
D. Acetylsalicylic Acid: Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) is an NSAID with analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antiplatelet properties. It is not an opioid and does not produce the central nervous system effects characteristic of opioids.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Decreased gastric pH: A lower gastric pH primarily affects drug absorption by altering solubility and ionization of medications in the stomach. It does not directly influence the distribution phase of pharmacokinetics, which relates to how the drug moves throughout body compartments.
B. Decreased levels of microsomal enzymes: Reduced hepatic microsomal enzyme activity affects drug metabolism, particularly phase I reactions, but does not directly impact distribution. Metabolic changes alter the duration and intensity of drug effects rather than how the drug is distributed in the body.
C. Fewer intact nephrons: A decline in functional nephrons primarily affects drug excretion. Impaired renal elimination can lead to drug accumulation, but distribution is determined by tissue compartments, protein binding, and body water/fat content.
D. Decrease percentage of total body water: Aging decreases total body water, which affects the volume of distribution for hydrophilic drugs. Lower water content leads to higher plasma concentrations of water-soluble drugs, increasing the risk of toxicity and altering therapeutic effects in older adults.
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