A client recently began taking feverfew for persistent migraine headaches. What education is most appropriate to teach the client?
This medication can also be used to prevent and treat gastric ulcers.
Do not use this supplement if you take any blood thinning medications.
Feverfew prevents menopausal symptoms by acting on estrogen receptors.
It is safe to take this medication during pregnancy and while breastfeeding.
The Correct Answer is B
A. This medication can also be used to prevent and treat gastric ulcers: Feverfew is not indicated for gastric ulcers and does not have protective effects on the gastric mucosa. Instead, it acts on inflammatory pathways to prevent migraine attacks, not gastrointestinal conditions.
B. Do not use this supplement if you take any blood thinning medications: Feverfew can inhibit platelet aggregation, increasing the risk of bleeding when taken with anticoagulants or antiplatelet drugs such as warfarin or aspirin. Clients should be advised to avoid combining feverfew with these medications to prevent excessive bleeding risk.
C. Feverfew prevents menopausal symptoms by acting on estrogen receptors: Feverfew does not influence estrogen receptors or hormone regulation. Its primary use is migraine prophylaxis, not management of menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes or mood swings.
D. It is safe to take this medication during pregnancy and while breastfeeding: Feverfew should be avoided during pregnancy and lactation because it may cause uterine contractions or adverse effects in infants.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Has several contraindications: An ideal drug should have minimal contraindications to ensure it can be safely used by most patients. Multiple contraindications increase the risk of adverse reactions and limit the drug’s clinical usefulness.
B. Effective at low doses: High potency and effectiveness at low doses are desirable characteristics of an ideal drug. It allows therapeutic effects to be achieved with minimal drug exposure, reducing toxicity risk and improving patient safety.
C. Only available as an injection: Ideally, a drug should be easy to administer, and oral forms are generally preferred for convenience and patient compliance. Limiting availability to injections reduces accessibility and increases discomfort for patients.
D. Frequent dosing schedule: An ideal drug should have a long duration of action to reduce dosing frequency. Fewer doses improve adherence, convenience, and consistency in maintaining therapeutic drug levels.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Drug absorption may be increased in the elderly client: Aging does not lead to increased drug absorption. In fact, gastrointestinal motility and blood flow often decrease with age, which can delay or slightly reduce absorption rather than enhance it.
B. First-pass metabolism may be increased in the elderly client: First-pass metabolism tends to decrease in older adults because of reduced liver mass and hepatic enzyme activity. Increased first-pass metabolism would actually shorten the drug’s effect, not prolong it.
C. Hepatic metabolism may be reduced in the elderly client: Aging commonly results in diminished liver function and decreased hepatic blood flow, slowing the metabolism of drugs like lorazepam. This reduced metabolism causes the medication to remain active in the body longer, leading to prolonged sedation.
D. Lorazepam does not cross the blood-brain barrier: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that readily crosses the blood-brain barrier to exert its sedative and anxiolytic effects. Its prolonged action in this scenario is due to reduced metabolism, not limited CNS penetration.
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