A client who has been taking antibiotics presents to the clinic complaining of white patches on the tongue. The nurse exams the client and believes the client has thrush. What medication will most likely be ordered for this client?

Hydroxychloroquine

Warfarin

Nystatin

Ondansetron

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Hydroxychloroquine.: Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial and anti-inflammatory medication used in conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. It has no antifungal properties and would not be effective for treating oral candidiasis (thrush).

B. Warfarin.: Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent or treat thromboembolic disorders. It has no role in managing fungal infections and could even pose risks if given unnecessarily, such as increased bleeding tendency.

C. Nystatin.: Nystatin is an antifungal medication commonly prescribed for oral candidiasis, especially after prolonged antibiotic use that disrupts normal oral flora. It is typically administered as an oral suspension that the client swishes in the mouth and then swallows to eliminate the fungal overgrowth.

D. Ondansetron.: Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy, radiation, or surgery. It has no antifungal action and would not address the white oral lesions caused by Candida infection.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Impotence.: Cimetidine, an H2 receptor antagonist, can cause endocrine-related adverse effects such as impotence, decreased libido, and gynecomastia in men. Cimetidine can block androgen receptors and increase prolactin levels, altering normal hormonal balance.

B. Hair growth.: Cimetidine does not promote hair growth. Excessive hair growth (hirsutism) is unrelated to H2 blockers and is more commonly associated with hormonal imbalances or specific endocrine disorders rather than this medication.

C. Priapism.: Prolonged, painful erection (priapism) is not a known side effect of cimetidine. It is more often associated with certain psychiatric medications or erectile dysfunction drugs that affect vascular blood flow.

D. Hypersecretion of stomach acid.: Cimetidine decreases, not increases, gastric acid production by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach lining. It is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, GERD, and gastritis by reducing acid secretion and promoting mucosal healing.

A. Administer cefazolin as ordered, as cross-reactivity is negligible. B. Hold cefazolin and notify the provider immediately. C. Administer cefazolin with premedication of antihistamines and corticosteroids. D. Administer cefazolin slowly with close monitoring for allergic reactions.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Administer cefazolin as ordered, as cross-reactivity is negligible.: Cefazolin is a first-generation cephalosporin with a higher potential for cross-allergy. Administering it without clarification places the client at significant risk for another anaphylactic reaction.

B. Hold cefazolin and notify the provider immediately.: The nurse should withhold cefazolin and promptly inform the healthcare provider. Cefazolin shares a similar beta-lactam structure with penicillin, and using it could trigger a severe hypersensitivity response requiring emergency treatment.

C. Administer cefazolin with premedication of antihistamines and corticosteroids.: Premedicating does not eliminate the risk of a true IgE-mediated anaphylactic reaction. Such an approach is unsafe as the reaction could still be life-threatening.

D. Administer cefazolin slowly with close monitoring for allergic reactions.: Giving the drug slowly does not prevent an anaphylactic response and may delay recognition of symptoms. The safest nursing action is to hold the medication entirely until an alternative antibiotic is prescribed by the healthcare provider.

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A client who has been taking antibiotics presents to the clinic complaining of white patches on the tongue. The nurse exams the client and believes the client has thrush. What medication will most likely be ordered for this client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has an order to receive the histamine receptor antagonist: Cimetidine. What potential adverse effects should be mentioned in client teaching?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client with a documented anaphylactic reaction to penicillin is prescribed cefazolin for surgical prophylaxis. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client is prescribed a beta-lactam antibiotic. The nurse knows that which of the following antibiotics are in the beta-lactam class? Select all that apply. One, some, or all may be correct.

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A client with GERD has been taking omeprazole 40 mg daily for 18 months. The nurse knows that what potential adverse effect is the client as risk for?

A nurse is caring for a patient receiving gentamicin sulfate, an Aminoglycoside antibiotic, for a severe bacterial infection. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

Which statement represents the advantage of prescribing Ondansetron rather than Promethazine for a client with nausea?

A nurse is providing education to a client with chronic asthma who has been prescribed the anti-leukotriene modifier montelukast. The nurse evaluates the client's understanding of the medication's purpose. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the medication?

A client is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor. The nurse knows that which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)?

A client is prescribed Bismuth Subsalicylate. What client condition or pathology might make this order concerning? Select all that apply, one, many or all may be correct.