A client who is experiencing chest pain and an ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF is receiving an infusion of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
Bleeding from needle puncture sites.
T wave inversion in leads II, III, aVF.
Change in level of consciousness.
Multifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs).
The Correct Answer is C
A. Bleeding from needle puncture sites: Minor bleeding is a common and expected side effect of tPA therapy. Although it should be monitored closely, it is not as urgent as signs of potential internal or cerebral bleeding, which require immediate action.
B. T wave inversion in leads II, III, aVF: T wave inversion may occur during the evolution of a myocardial infarction and after reperfusion. While it reflects changes in myocardial repolarization, it is not as critical as neurological changes.
C. Change in level of consciousness: A sudden change in LOC may indicate intracranial hemorrhage, the most severe and life-threatening complication of thrombolytic therapy. This finding requires immediate cessation of the tPA infusion and emergency evaluation.
D. Multifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs): Multifocal PVCs suggest ventricular irritability and require monitoring, especially post-MI. However, they are less urgent than neurological symptoms that could signal a catastrophic bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Contact the client's healthcare power of attorney: This is appropriate if the client is unable to make decisions or if end-of-life care planning is being addressed. However, the client is alert enough to report syncopal episodes, and the priority is stabilizing his condition.
B. Call for immediate help from the rapid response team (RRT): The rapid response team is called for acute, life-threatening changes in clinical. Although the client is tachycardic, there is no indication of immediate decompensation requiring emergency intervention.
C. Report the client’s falls and bruises to adult protective services: The presence of bruises alone is not sufficient to trigger a report without further assessment. These bruises may be related to the syncopal events. The nurse must first assess and stabilize the client.
D. Monitor the client’s blood pressure and oxygen saturation: With atrial fibrillation and a rapid ventricular response, the client is at risk for hemodynamic instability. Monitoring vital signs helps determine whether the high heart rate is compromising perfusion or oxygenation, guiding the urgency of treatment and further evaluation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Normal coagulation studies: While important for evaluating bleeding risk, coagulation values do not confirm or exclude myocardial infarction. They are more relevant when planning invasive procedures or anticoagulation, not in the acute diagnosis of MI.
B. ST segment elevation: ST segment elevation on a 12-lead ECG is a critical diagnostic indicator of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Recognizing this finding guides urgent reperfusion therapy such as PCI or thrombolytics, making it a key priority assessment.
C. Premature ventricular contractions (PVC): PVCs may occur during or after an MI due to myocardial irritability, but they are not diagnostic. Isolated PVCs do not provide definitive evidence of infarction and may be seen in various other cardiac conditions.
D. Relief of chest pain: Pain relief is an important treatment goal, but it is a response to intervention, not a diagnostic tool. Monitoring pain helps evaluate effectiveness of therapy, but confirming the MI requires objective findings like ECG changes.
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