A client with a C-7 spinal cord injury (SCI) is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should first assess the client for which precipitating factor?
Skeletal traction misalignment.
Profuse forehead diaphoresis.
An acutely distended bladder.
A severe pounding headache.
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Skeletal traction misalignment: While misalignment can cause discomfort and complications in spinal cord injury clients, it is not the most common or immediate trigger of autonomic dysreflexia. Assessment of alignment is secondary to more urgent causes of sympathetic overactivity.
B. Profuse forehead diaphoresis: Sweating is a symptom of autonomic dysreflexia but is a manifestation rather than a precipitating factor. Identifying the cause of the dysreflexia takes priority over treating symptoms alone.
C. An acutely distended bladder: Bladder distension is the most common precipitating factor for autonomic dysreflexia in clients with lesions at T6 or above. Immediate assessment and relief of urinary retention are critical to prevent severe hypertension, stroke, or other life-threatening complications.
D. A severe pounding headache: Headache is a classic symptom of autonomic dysreflexia, reflecting elevated blood pressure. While important to recognize, it indicates the presence of the condition rather than identifying the cause that must be addressed first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Sluggish pupillary response: A delayed pupillary reaction may indicate increased intracranial pressure or neural pathway involvement but is not immediately life-threatening. It warrants monitoring and documentation rather than urgent intervention unless accompanied by other neurological changes.
B. Respiratory rate 6 breaths/minute: A severely decreased respiratory rate signals respiratory compromise from loss of diaphragmatic or intercostal muscle control, common with high cervical spine injuries. This finding indicates impending respiratory arrest and requires immediate airway and ventilatory support.
C. Average urinary output 20 mL/hour: Reduced urine output suggests decreased renal perfusion or possible neurogenic bladder, but it is not immediately life-threatening. It should be reported for evaluation but is secondary to managing respiratory failure risk.
D. Heart rate 140 beats/minute: Tachycardia may occur due to pain, anxiety, or autonomic disruption but does not pose the same acute risk as respiratory depression. It should be monitored and managed appropriately after ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Apply compression stockings: Compression stockings help prevent deep vein thrombosis in clients with limited mobility but do not address spasticity. While important for circulation, they are not effective for controlling involuntary muscle movements.
B. Perform active range of motion exercises: Range of motion exercises maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures, but they do not sufficiently manage spasticity, which is caused by upper motor neuron injury and requires targeted intervention.
C. Massage the extremities twice a week: Massage may provide temporary relief or comfort but is insufficient to control the frequency or intensity of spastic muscle movements. Relying solely on massage would not adequately manage the condition.
D. Give antispasmodic medications: Antispasmodic agents, such as baclofen or tizanidine, reduce muscle tone and control spasticity by acting on the central nervous system. Administering these medications directly addresses involuntary muscle contractions and improves functional mobility and comfort.
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