A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and a bacterial infection receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin. The standard dose is 500 mg PO twice daily, but due to the patient's renal impairment, a dose adjustment of 50% is recommended. The medication is available in 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Enter numerical value only.)
The Correct Answer is ["1"]
Calculation:
- Determine the standard daily dose.
Standard dose = 500 mg PO twice daily, which means 500 mg per dose.
- Calculate the adjusted dose per administration due to renal impairment.
Adjusted dose = Standard dose per administration × 50%
= 500 mg × 0.50
= 250 mg.
Available strength of each tablet = 250 mg/tablet.
- Calculate the number of tablets to administer per dose.
Number of tablets per dose = Adjusted dose (mg) / Available strength (mg/tablet)
= 250 mg / 250 mg/tablet
= 1 tablet.
Answer: 1
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Clarify that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse: Not all STIs are exclusively transmitted through intercourse; some can spread through oral-genital contact, skin-to-skin contact, or shared needles.
B. Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of STIs: Safe sex practices reduce the risk of STIs but do not completely eliminate it. Barrier methods like condoms lower transmission rates, but there is still a residual risk with skin-to-skin infections.
C. Explain that reinfections occur from sex with untreated partners: Clients treated for syphilis remain at risk of reinfection if their sexual partners are not also treated. Reinforcing this promotes partner notification and comprehensive treatment to stop the infection cycle.
D. Provide counseling that most contraceptives protect against infection: Most contraceptives, such as birth control pills, IUDs, or implants, prevent pregnancy but offer no protection against STIs. Only barrier methods like condoms can help prevent transmission.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. She is a gravida 6, para 5: A high parity (multiple previous births) stretches the uterus significantly over time, increasing the risk of uterine atony—a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage due to the uterus failing to contract effectively.
B. She received butorphanol 2 mg IV during labor: Butorphanol is a narcotic analgesic and does not directly contribute to excessive postpartum bleeding or uterine atony in typical doses.
C. She is over 35 years of age: Advanced maternal age can increase some obstetric risks, but it is not as directly associated with postpartum hemorrhage as high parity.
D. The second stage of labor lasted 10 minutes: A short second stage may lead to perineal trauma, but it is less likely to cause excessive vaginal bleeding compared to uterine atony from high parity.
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